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Bogdan [553]
3 years ago
5

you are considering a project with an initial cash outlay of $80,000 and expected free cash flow of $20,000 at the end of each y

ear for 6 years. the required rate of return for this project is 10 percent. a. what is the project's payback period? b. what is the project's NPV? c. what is the project's PI? what is the project's IRR?
Business
1 answer:
alexgriva [62]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Payback period: 4 years

NPV: $87,105

PI: 1.089

IRR: 12.98% (rounded to 2 decimal places)

Explanation:

Payback period is the time taken to recover the initial capital outlay of an investment assuming no interruption of anticipated net cash flow or free cash flow. Computed by dividing initial investment by the anticipated cash flow per year. ($80, 000/$20, 000) = 4 years

Net Present Value (NPV) e is used to analyse the profitability of an investment by discounting future anticipated cash flows. The formula for computing NPV is: [(Cash flows)/(1+r)i] where cash flows is the anticipated cash flow each year,, r is the discount rate, in this case, required rate of return and the i indicated the time period. The NPV is calculated as: [(20,000/(1.1) +20,000/(1.1)^1 +20,000/(1.1)^2 +20,000/(1.1)^3 +20,000/(1.1)^4 +20,000/(1.1)^5 + 20,000/(1.1)^6] = $87, 105

Profitability Index is used to quantify the amount of value created per unit of investment. It is computed as: Net Present Value/ Initial Investment , that is, $87105/$80,000 = 1.089. This means that for every dollar invested, the project generates value of  $1.089

Internal Rate of Return (IRR) makes the present value of the project equal to zero. The higher the IRR , the more profitable the project. In this case, the most accurate way this value can be computed is by using a calculator and computing the IRR. N (time period) = 6 , PV(present value of initial investment) = -80, 000, PMT (cashflows per year) = 20,000 Comp I/Y (rate of return) = 12.978%

The variables computed above indicate that undertaking this project would be profitable for the company.

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Answer:

The smallest Q that will suffice is 409.86

Explanation:

Since Future value of payments = 14000

300*[(1 + 3%/12)^12 - 1]/3%/12*(1 + 3%/12)^24 + Q*[(1 + 3%/12)^24 - 1]/3%/12 = 14000

Q*[(1 + 3%/12)^24 - 1]/3%/12 = 14000  - 300*[(1 + 3%/12)^12 - 1]/3%/12*(1 + 3%/12)^24

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Therefore, The smallest Q that will suffice is 409.86

8 0
3 years ago
The combination of advertising, personal selling, public relations, and sales promotion activities traditionally used by an orga
Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

promotion mix

Explanation:

Promotion mix -

In the marketing area , it refers to the method for marketing a particular goods and services with promotional variables , is referred to as promotion mix .

It is referred to as the subset of the marketing mix .

It helps to promote the product in the best manner , in order to achieve the best marketing result.

Hence, from the given information of the question,

The correct term is promotion mix .

3 0
3 years ago
On a shopping​ trip, Melanie decided to buy a light blue coat made from woven fabric. A tag on the coat stated that the price wa
ra1l [238]

Answer:

Consumer surplus is $15.99.

Explanation:

Melanie decided to buy a coat priced $79.95.  

When she brought a coat to the sales clerk, she found out that it is on a 20% discount and she has to $15.99 less than the original price.  

This means that her consumer surplus is at least $15.99.  

The consumer surplus is the difference between the maximum price a consumer is willing to pay and the price it actually pays.  

Melanie was willing to pay $79.95. But she actually paid $63.96. The difference between the two is $15.99.  

6 0
3 years ago
The Cutting Department of Sheffield Company has the following production and cost data for July.
kykrilka [37]
The answer is A and dats a fact
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3 years ago
A year end review of Accounts Receivable and estimated uncollectible percentages revealed the​ following: Days Outstanding Accou
olganol [36]

Answer:

A. $ 8 comma 730.

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

For 1 - 30 days    

= $61,000 × 2%

= $1,220

For 31 - 60 days

= $44,000 × 5%

= $2,200

For 61 - 90 days

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= $2,310

Over 90 days

= $9,000 × 50%

= $4,500

So, the total amount is

= $1,220 + $2,200 + $2,310 + $4,500

= $10,230

Now the Account Expense  is

= Total expense - credit balance

= $10,230 - $1,500

= $8,730

3 0
3 years ago
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