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elena55 [62]
3 years ago
15

Kevin, who has liability limits of $20,000/$40,000/$20,000 and a $500 collision deductible, is involved in an accident. Due to h

is negligence he runs into a Rolls Royce. Three people sustained bodily injuries in the Rolls Royce. The driver's injuries were worth $1,000,000, a passenger received injuries worth $12,500, and another passenger received injuries of $7,100. How much will the PAP pay for these bodily injuries?
Business
1 answer:
harina [27]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Amount to pay by PAP = $39,600

Explanation:

The liability limits of $20,000/$40,000/$20,000 implies that the highest amount PAP will pay for driver's injuries is $20,000, while the highest to pay for the first of two passenger is $40,000 and $20,000 for second passenger.

Since the a passenger received injuries worth $12,500, and another passenger received injuries of $7,100, the PAP will the actual amount and $20,000 for the driver's injuries. The total can therefore be calculated as follows:

Amount to pay by PAP = $20,000 + $12,500 + $7,100 = $39,600

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During the year, Mark reports $90,000 of active business income from his law practice. He also owns two passive activities. From
andrezito [222]

Answer:

b. $90,000 with a $10,000 loss carryover

Explanation:

Given that

Active business income = $90,000

From Activity A, the income earns = $20,000

From Activity B, the loss incurs = $30,000

So by considering the above information, the Adjusted gross income should be

The $90,000 should be recorded

Plus, the $10,000 loss should also be carryover

The $10,000 loss is come from

= $20,000 - $30,000

= -$10,000

8 0
3 years ago
Which $1,000 bond has the higher yield to maturity, a twenty-years bond selling for $800 with a current yield of 15% or a one-ye
lesantik [10]

Answer:

30%

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Here we considered a long term bond that time period should be 15 years or more

Now as we know that

Current yield is

= Current payment ÷ Pb

5% = Current payment ÷ $800

The Current payment is $40

Now the yield to maturity is

-$800 = $50 ÷  (1 + i) + $1,000 ÷ (1 + i) + $1,040 ÷ (1 + i)

So, i = 30%

The same is to be chosen

3 0
3 years ago
The following information pertains to a manufacturing company: Beginning finished goods inventory $48,000 Manufacturing overhead
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

COGS= $122,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Beginning finished goods inventory $48,000

Cost of goods manufactured $117,000

Ending finished goods inventory $43,000

To calculate the cost of goods sold, we need to use the following formula:

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

COGS= 48,000 + 117,000 - 43,000

COGS= $122,000

7 0
3 years ago
When a market’s annual growth rate falls below 10 percent, a star will become a dog if it still has the largest market share?
mezya [45]
That statement is false

according to <span>IX Boston Consulting Group Model, a star will became a<em> cash cow</em> </span><span>if it still has the largest market share under this circumstances.
This means that the company still making enough cash for its employees and still enjoy a pretty high-profit margin.

</span>
3 0
3 years ago
In the early days of book publishing, publishers functioned as:
podryga [215]

The publishers in the early days of book publishing are considered to be no other than just a printer for they are able to publish books and have them written on a reading material which is why they are functioned to be as printers.

3 0
3 years ago
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