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lisov135 [29]
3 years ago
14

In the Keynesian-cross model, fiscal policy has a multiplied effect on income because fiscal policy: changes income, which chang

es consumption, which further changes income. is government spending and, therefore, more powerful than private spending. changes the interest rate. increases the amount of money in the economy.
Business
2 answers:
Ne4ueva [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Keynesian Economics focuses on using active government policy to manage aggregate demand in order to address or prevent economic recessions.

Keynes developed his theories in response to the Great Depression, and was highly critical of classical economic arguments that natural economic forces and incentives would be sufficient to help the economy recover.

Activist fiscal and monetary policy are the primary tools recommended by Keynesian economists to manage the economy and fight unemployment.

mihalych1998 [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

changes income, which changes consumption, which further changes income.

Explanation:

Keynesian theory states that low aggregate demand results in low income and high unemployment. Mathematically, actual expenditures must equal GDP, and planned expenditures = consumption expenditures, planned investment and government spending. Actual expenditures should vary only because of unplanned inventory investment = unsold finished products.

Keynesian models focus on increasing total expenditure and one way to do achieve this is by an expansionary fiscal policy. If aggregate income increases, total consumption will increase, and it will result in a further increase in aggregate income which will again increase consumption ⇒ It results in a virtuous cycle.

Keynes's great success was based on increasing aggregate demand while keeping a strict monetary policy in order to keep inflation low. High inflation dilutes the gains of an increase in aggregate demand.

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Economic systems

Explanation:

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2 years ago
Addresses do not change if you copy them to a different cell
RideAnS [48]

I don’t get this answer but ok

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3 years ago
1. All of the following would be classified as manufacturing overhead except the: A) wages of supervisor of the machining shop.
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

D) All of the above would be classified as manufacturing overhead.

Explanation:

Manufacturing overhead is the overhead incurred directly in relation to the manufacturing process.

It can be fixed as well as variable, there is no standard conclusion for the above on the basis of nature of overhead.

Machining shop is a part of manufacturing process, and all expense related to that will be classified as manufacturing overhead, whether the expense is in cash like supervisor salary, property taxes of building of machining shop, or non cash expense like depreciation.

Therefore, all the expenses will be included in manufacturing overhead.

8 0
3 years ago
When Patey Pontoons issued 6% bonds on January 1, 2018, with a face amount of $600,000, the market yield for bonds of similar ri
Sliva [168]

Answer:

<u>1.- issued at : </u>$579,378

<u></u>

<u>2.- the schedule is attached.</u>

<u></u>

<u>3 and 4.- journal entries</u>

cash                                     579,378 debit

discount on bonds payable 20,622 debit

         bonds payabe                        600,000 credit

--to record issuance-------

interest expense 20278.23 debit

        discount on bonds payable     2278.23 credit

        cash                                  18000 credit

--to record June 30th payment---

<u>5.-At December 31th 2018 will report as follow:</u>

bonds payable        600,000

discount on bonds    (15,986)

                           net 584,014

<u>6.- it will report interest expense for:</u>

20,278.23 June

20,357.97 December

total: 40.636,2‬

7.- maturity:

interest expense 20,898.55

discount on bonds payable 2,898.55

cash 618,000

Explanation:

For the value of the bonds at issuance, we will calcualtethe present value of the coupon payment and the maturity at market rate.

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 18,000 ( 600,000 x 0.06/2)

time 8 (4 years x 2 payment per year

rate 0.035(market rate / 2)

18000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.035)^{-8} }{0.035} = PV\\

PV $123,731.1997

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   600,000.00

time   8.00

rate  0.035

\frac{600000}{(1 + 0.035)^{8} } = PV  

PV   455,646.93

PV c $123,731.1997

PV m  $455,646.9337

Total $579,378.1334

for the schedule we will multuply the carrying value by the market rate.

the ncompare with the proceed in cash to know the amortizaiton.

This amortization will increase the carrying value of the loan.

5 0
2 years ago
Present value is: a. The future value of a current amount of money evaluated at a given interest rate. b. The current value of a
pogonyaev

Answer:

Explanation:

Present value is calculated as the discounted sum of either a fixed amount or a series of payments in the future, at a given interest rates.

For example, at an interest of 5%, $100 in 10 years will be valued at $100 / 1.05^10 = $61.39 today

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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