Answer:
B) There is an inflationary gap, and contractionary fiscal policy is appropriate.
Explanation:
One of the macroeconomic cases is inflationary gap. It means that the difference between the current level of real gross domestic product (GDP) and the predicted or forecasted GDP that would be experienced and achieved if an economy is at full employment. It could be claimed that when the demand for goods and services gets over the production in the factors such as: higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities or increased government expenditure.
In order to overcome this gap, the contractionary fiscal policy must be considered. The mechanism of that policy is to increase the taxes decrease the government expenses due to inflationary pressures. This policy consequently will affect the level of consumption and private investment, respectively, these also will decrease the real GDP.
Other concept of macroeconomics is recessionary gap. In comparison to inflationary gap, this concept indicates the economy operating at lower level than its full equilibrium level, in turn, the level of real GDP is also less than full equilibrium level. We used to see this situation when the economy was intending to recess.
In order to overcome this gap, the expansionary fiscal policy will work well. Because of decreasing taxes and increasing government expenditures, the recessionary gap can be fought anymore. Since the taxes decreases, the business will revive and the confidence to the investment will increase, as a result the GDP will rise. Moreover, the growing government expenditures will stimulate the GDP to accrue.
To summarize, according to the question we need the gap in which the economy is above of potential, this means inflationary gap. Following this finding, the contractionary fiscal policy will be solution.
Answer:
a. $44,000
Explanation:
The computation of the total cash flow net of income taxes in year 3 is shown below:
= Incremental sales - annual incremental cash operating expenses - one-time renovation expense - depreciation expense - income tax expense + depreciation expense
= $310,000 - $230,000 - $30,000 - $30,000 - $6,000 + $30,000
= $44,000
Since depreciation is a non-cash expense so it would be added back to the computation part
The depreciation expense would be
= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)
= ($120,000 - $0) ÷ (4 years)
= ($120,000) ÷ (4 years)
= $30,000
And, the income tax expense would be
= (Incremental sales - annual incremental cash operating expenses - one-time renovation expense - depreciation expense) × tax rate
= ($310,000 - $230,000 - $30,000 - $30,000) × 30%
= $20,000 × 30%
= $6,000
Based on the principle of economics, the correct answer goes thus:
Economists distinguish among the immediate market period, the short run, and the long run by noting that:
- Elasticity of supply will increase when the number of producers selling a product decreases.
<h3>Immediate market run</h3>
Economists distinguish among the immediate market period, the short run, and the long run by noting that there will be increase in elasticity of supply.
In conclusion, we can conclude that the correct answer is the increase in elasticity of supply.
Learn more about elasticity of supply here: brainly.com/question/4467460
Answer:
The answer is c. Enter into a forward contract to sell 30,000 euros in 30 days
Explanation:
The risk Golden is facing is the exchange rate risk. Specially, as of the firm's concern, 30,00 euros they will receive in 30 days will not be worth as much as it is now because the Euro is expected to be depreciated against the firm's domestic currency.
So, they may enter into a forward contract allowing them to sell 30,000 euros in 30 days ( take short position in Euro) at pre-determined exchange rate. By doing so, they effectively eliminate the exchange rate risk by lock-in the exchange rate at the day they receive 30,000 euro.
