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4 years ago

If a circle has a diameter of 4 inches, what is the area?

2 answers:

7 0

The formula for area of a circle is π × radius^2, and to find the radius we can just divided the diameter by 2 and get 2 inches. You don't need to use a calculator here, because π is approximately equal to 3.14, so 3.14 × 2^2 = 12.56, which is answer B. I hope this helps!

Dafna11 [192]4 years ago

6 0

Answer:

50.24

Step-by-step explanation:

i got it wrong on study Island

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Let T: set of real numbers R Superscript nℝnright arrow→set of real numbers R Superscript mℝm be a linear transformation, and

Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

$\{T(v_1), T(v_2), T(v_3)\}$ is linearly dependent set.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: $\{v_1,v_2,v_3\}$ is a linearly dependent set in set of real numbers R

To show: the set $\{T(v_1), T(v_2), T(v_3)\}$ is linearly dependent.

Solution:

If $\{v_1,v_2,v_3,...,v_n\}$ is a set of linearly dependent vectors then there exists atleast one $k_i:i=1,2,3,...,n$ such that $k_1v_1+k_2v_2+k_3v_3+...+k_nv_n=0$

Consider $k_1T(v_1)+k_2T(v_2)+k_3T(v_3)=0$

A linear transformation T: U→V satisfies the following properties:

1. $T(u_1+u_2)=T(u_1)+T(u_2)$

2. $T(au)=aT(u)$

Here, $u,u_1,u_2$ ∈ U

As T is a linear transformation,

$k_1T(v_1)+k_2T(v_2)+k_3T(v_3)=0\\T(k_1v_1)+T(k_2v_2)+T(k_3v_3)=0\\T(k_1v_1+k_2v_2+k_3v_3)=0\\$

As $\{v_1,v_2,v_3\}$ is a linearly dependent set,

$k_1v_1+k_2v_2+k_3v_3=0$ for some $k_i\neq 0:i=1,2,3$

So, for some $k_i\neq 0:i=1,2,3$

$k_1T(v_1)+k_2T(v_2)+k_3T(v_3)=0$

Therefore, set $\{T(v_1), T(v_2), T(v_3)\}$ is linearly dependent.

6 0

3 years ago

What is n in the equation 12 + 12n = -48

Liula [17]

Hello!

To solve an algebraic equation, you must isolate the variable on one side. We’ll begin by restating the given equation:

12 + 12n = -48

Now subtract 12 from both sides of the equation:

12n = -60

Divide both sides by 12:

n = -5

We have now proven that “n” is equal to (-5).

I hope this helps!

3 0

3 years ago

A construction company is considering submitting bids for contracts of three different projects. The company estimates that it h

julsineya [31]

Answer:

a. $P(x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}*p^{x}*(1-p)^{n-x}\\$

b. $E(x) = 0.3$

c. $S(x)=0.5196$

d. $E=5,000$

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the company won x bids follows a binomial distribution because we have n identical and independent experiments with a probability p of success and (1-p) of fail.

So, the PMF of X is equal to:

$P(x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}*p^{x}*(1-p)^{n-x}\\$

Where p is 0.1 and it is the chance of winning. Additionally, n is 3 and it is the number of bids. So the PMF of X is:

$P(x)=\frac{3!}{x!(3-x)!}*0.1^{x}*(1-0.1)^{n-x}\\$

For binomial distribution:

$E(x)=np\\S(x)=\sqrt{np(1-p)}$

Therefore, the company can expect to win 0.3 bids and it is calculated as:

$E(x) = np = 3*0.1 = 0.3$

Additionally, the standard deviation of the number of bids won is:

$S(x)=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{3(0.1)(1-0.1)}=0.5196$

Finally, the probability to won 1, 2 or 3 bids is equal to:

$P(1)=\frac{3!}{1!(3-1)!}*0.1^{1}*(1-0.1)^{3-1}=0.243\\P(2)=\frac{3!}{2!(3-2)!}*0.1^{2}*(1-0.1)^{3-2}=0.027\\P(3)=\frac{3!}{3!(3-3)!}*0.1^{3}*(1-0.1)^{3-3}=0.001$

So, the expected profit for the company is equal to:

$E=-10,000+50,000(0.243)+100,000(0.027)+150,000(0.001)\\E=5,000$

Because there is a probability of 0.243 to win one bid and it will produce 50,000 of income, there is a probability of 0.027 to win 2 bids and it will produce 100,000 of income and there is a probability of 0.001 to win 3 bids and it will produce 150,000 of income.

5 0

3 years ago

680 times 0.0013 in standard form

sasho [114]

Answer:

8.84×10 To the power of -1

Step-by-step explanation:

stated number and decimal number is 8.84

goal: find the standard form of that number.

Defenition: (Plagarism Copyrights) The rules when writing a number in standard form is that first you write down a number between 1 and 10, then you write × 10(to the power of a number).

So 0.884 is 8.84/10

next put the numerator of 10 to 1 - 1/10

mulitiply 8.84 by 1/10-

this, the answer is multiply 8.84 by 10 to the power of -1

which is basically 8.84×10 To the power of -1

4 0

3 years ago

PLEASE HELP TIMED TEST!!!

blagie [28]

Answer:A

Step-by-step explanation:

If they both go down from 3 then it is 3 and then -infinity.

(this is my best answer without a picture, hope you get it right!)

4 0

3 years ago