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Yuri [45]
3 years ago
13

Help!!!! I need to know this because I haven’t been paying attention in class

Mathematics
2 answers:
prisoha [69]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1:rational

2:rational or irrational

3:rational

4:irrational

Step-by-step explanation:

Yuki888 [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1:rational

2:rational or irrational

3:rational

4:irrational

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3 years ago
Need help ASAP <br> Will make you brainlist
lara31 [8.8K]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

I am not that sure but I tried... :)

5 0
3 years ago
Write the percent as a fraction in simplest form 50%
12345 [234]

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

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7 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
4 years ago
Help it’s confusing
noname [10]

Answer:

I think is C like I said not quite sure...

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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