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kondor19780726 [428]
3 years ago
6

EXAMPLE 2 Prove that 9ex is equal to the sum of its Maclaurin series. SOLUTION If f(x) = 9ex, then f (n + 1)(x) = for all n. If

d is any positive number and |x| ≤ d, then |f (n + 1)(x)| = ≤ 9ed. So Taylor's Inequality, with a = 0 and M = 9ed, says that |Rn(x)| ≤ (n + 1)! |x|n + 1 for |x| ≤ d. Notice that the same constant M = 9ed works for every value of n. But, from this equation, we have lim n → [infinity] 9ed (n + 1)! |x|n + 1 = 9ed lim n → [infinity] |x|n + 1 (n + 1)! = . It follows from the Squeeze Theorem that lim n → [infinity] |Rn(x)| = 0 and therefore lim n → [infinity] Rn(x) = for all values of x. By this theorem, 9ex is equal to the sum of its Maclaurin series, that is, 9ex = [infinity] 9xn n! n = 0 for all x.
Mathematics
1 answer:
amm18123 years ago
6 0

Answer:

To Prove: 9e^x is equal to the sum of its Maclaurin series.

Step-by-step explanation:

If f(x) = 9e^x, then f ^{(n + 1)(x)} =9e^x for all n. If d is any positive number and   |x| ≤ d, then |f^{(n + 1)(x)}| = 9e^x\leq  9e^d.

So Taylor's Inequality, with a = 0 and M = 9e^d, says that |R_n(x)| \leq \dfrac{9e^d}{(n+1)!} |x|^{n + 1} \:for\: |x| \leq  d.

Notice that the same constant M = 9e^d works for every value of n.

But, since lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{x^n}{n!} =0 $ for every real number x$,

We have lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{9e^d}{(n+1)!} |x|^{n + 1} =9e^d lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{|x|^{n + 1}}{(n+1)!} =0

It follows from the Squeeze Theorem that lim_{n\to\infty} |R_n(x)|=0 and therefore lim_{n\to\infty} R_n(x)=0 for all values of x.

THEOREM\\If f(x)=T_n(x)+R_n(x), $where $T_n $is the nth degree Taylor Polynomial of f at a and  $ lim_{n\to\infty} R_n(x)=0 \:  for \: |x-a|

By this theorem above, 9e^x is equal to the sum of its Maclaurin series, that is,

9e^x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{9x^n}{n!}  for all x.

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Zahra compares two wireless data plans. Which equation gives the correct value of n, the number of GB, for which Plans A and B c
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The equation which gives the correct value of n, the number of GB, for which Plans A and B cost the same is 8n = 20 + 6(n-2)

To determine which equation gives the correct value of n, the number of GB, for which Plans A and B cost the same, we will first solve the equations.

  • For the first equation

8n = 20 + 6n

Collect like terms

8n - 6n = 20

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Then, n = 20 ÷ 2

n = 10 GB

For Plan A

No initial fee and $8 for each GB

Here, 10GB will cost 10 × $8 = $80

For Plan B

$20 for the first 2GB and $6 for each additional GB after the first 2

Here, 10GB will cost $20 + (8 × $6) = $20 + $48 = $68

∴ Plans A and B do not cost the same here.

  • For the second equation

8n = 20(2n) + 6

First, clear the bracket

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Now, collect like terms

40n - 8n = 6

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∴ n = 6 ÷ 42

n = 1/7 GB

For Plan A

No initial fee and $8 for each GB

Here, 1/7GB will cost 1/7 × $8 = $1.14

For Plan B

$20 for the first 2GB and $6 for each additional GB after the first 2

Here, 1/7GB will cost $20 (Since the lowest cost is $20)

∴ Plans A and B do not cost the same here.

  • For the third equation

8n = 20 + 6(n-2)

First, clear the brackets

8n = 20 + 6n - 12

Now, collect like terms

8n - 6n = 20 - 12

2n = 8

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For Plan A

No initial fee and $8 for each GB

Here, 4GB will cost 4× $8 = $32

For Plan B

$20 for the first 2GB and $6 for each additional GB after the first 2

Here, 4GB will cost $20 + (2 × $6) = $20 + $12 = $32

Plans A and B do not cost the same here.

∴ Plans A and B do cost the same here

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8n = 20 + 2n + 6

Collect like terms

8n - 2n = 20 + 6

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n = \frac{26}{6}

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For Plan A

No initial fee and $8 for each GB

Here, \frac{13}{3} GB will cost \frac{13}{3}  × $8 = $34.67

For Plan B

$20 for the first 2GB and $6 for each additional GB after the first 2

Here, 4\frac{1}{3}GB will cost $20 + ( 2\frac{1}{3}× $6) = $20 + $14 = $34

∴ Plans A and B do not cost the same here.

Hence, the equation which gives the correct value of n, the number of GB, for which Plans A and B cost the same is 8n = 20 + 6(n-2)

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/9371507

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