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Murrr4er [49]
4 years ago
11

Seattle, Inc. owns an 80 percent interest in a Portuguese subsidiary. For 20X8, Seattle reported income from operations of $2.0

million. The Portuguese company's income from operations, after foreign currency translation, was $1.1 million. The foreign currency translation adjustment was $120,000 (credit). Consolidated net income and consolidated comprehensive income for the year are:
Consolidated Net Income Consolidated Comprehensive Income
(A) $ 3,100,000 $ 3,196,000
(B) $ 2,980,000 $ 3,076,000
(C) $ 3,004,000 $ 3,100,000
(D) $ 2,880,000 $ 2,976,000
Business
1 answer:
Luba_88 [7]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(D) $ 2,880,000 $ 2,976,000

Explanation:

Consoidated net income  

Seattle Inc                        $2,000,000

Portugese sub                $880,000

(1.1*80%)  

Consoidated net income $2,880,000

Comprehensive income  

Net income                                                 $2,880,000

Other comphrensive income/(loss)  

Foreign currency translation adjustment  $96,000

(120000*80%)  

combined comprehensive income           $2,976,000

Therefore, The Consolidated net income and consolidated comprehensive income for the year are $2,880,000 amd $2,976,000.

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If the coupon interest rate remains constant from the time of issue until the bond matures, then the bond is called afixed-rate
marta [7]

Answer:

Indenture

Deferred call provision

Explanation:

Indenture is defined as the contract that describes the terms of a borrowing arrangement between a firm that sells a bond issue and the investors who purchase the bonds.

A call provision is defined as the right that the issuer of a security has to call or redeem the security at certain times and under specific conditions.

The call provision in which the issuer is prevented from calling a portion or the entire issue for several years during the early years of the bond issue is called deferred call provision.

8 0
3 years ago
A company purchases 12,000 pounds of materials. The materials price variance is $6,000 favorable. What is the difference between
Sonbull [250]

Answer:

The difference between the standard and actual price paid for the materials is $0.5.

Explanation:

Given Data:

Actual Quantity = 12,000 Pounds

Material Price Variance = $6,000

We know the formula for Material Price Variance is:

Materials Price Variance = <em>(Actual quantity × Actual price)</em> – <em>(Actual quantity × Standard price) ----- (1)</em>

For convenience, suppose:

Actual  Price = AP    &  Standard Price = SP

Rearranging the equation (1) and substituting the Actual and standard price with AP and SP we get,

Material Price Variance = (Actual Quantity x AP) – (Actual Quantity x SP)

Taking Actual Quantity as common on the left hand side of equation we get:

Material Price Variance= Actual Quantity (AP – SP) ---- (2)

Putting the values of Material Variance and Actual Quantity in equation (2), we get:

$6000=12,000 (AP – SP)

Rearranging the equation we get,

AP – SP = $6000/12,000

Finally, AP – SP = $0.5

Conclusion:

The difference between the standard and actual price paid for the materials is $0.5.

7 0
3 years ago
A certificate or token that represents a fixed quanity of commodity is called
Talja [164]
This would be called representative money because the token itself is worth money as well as the commodity <span />
8 0
3 years ago
An investor contributes $10,000 to a limited partnership and signs a $40,000 recourse note. In the first year, the investor's di
kondaur [170]

Answer: The loss carried to the next year is $10,000

Explanation:

the initial investment = $10,000 contribution + $40,000 recourse note= $50,000 initial basis.

The income in the first year = $15,000

Therefore total sum basis = $50,000 initial investment + $15,000 income = $65,000

The cash distributed = $5,000

we deduct the cash distributed from the total sum basis

hence,

remaining basis = $65,000 - $5,000 = $60,000

since the loss = $70,000

therefore,

the remaining loss after the first year = $70,000 - $60,000 = $10,000

so $10,000 will be the unused loss carried to the next year.

4 0
3 years ago
A dollar available today is always worth more than a dollar not available until a future period.
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

The statement is: True.

Explanation:

The Time Value of Money is a concept that states a dollar today is always worth more than a dollar tomorrow. The theory relies on the earning capacity of money. The approach is the reason why entrepreneurs prefer to capitalize on their investments the soonest so the more money available now will represent for them more money accrued in the future.

8 0
3 years ago
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