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podryga [215]
3 years ago
5

In Kant’s time, peasants would sometimes sell their teeth to wealthier individuals who needed them. Kant objected to this, and h

e would presumably, for similar reasons, object to selling organs (like kidneys) in the present day. Which of following most accurately characterizes Kant’s reasons for objecting to selling parts of one’s body? a) The pain caused by having a tooth or an organ extracted is severe — severe enough to outweigh the pleasure that the recipient will enjoy. b) Extracting teeth and organs is digusting, and, therefore, morally wrong. c) Extracting teeth and organs inherently involves a certain amount of risk. Something could go wrong, and the procedure could result in infection, further illness, or death. Kant says that we are not allowed to take risks with our lives. d) By selling part of her body, a person would be treating herself as a mere means, and not as an end in herself. e) An individual’s body is owned by God, and so she is not free to do with it whatever she wishes. God has ultimate ownership over her body, and so selling a tooth or an organ would require selling something that one does not actually own.
Law
1 answer:
frez [133]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Correct Answer:

b) Extracting teeth and organs is disgusting, and, therefore, morally wrong.

Explanation:

Immanuel Kant was a Prussian Philosopher whose works had an influence on the society. In one of his works on morality, he argued on the ethical and unethical stands on some of the actions done by people.

<em>One of them being the buying of teeth by the wealthy individual from poor peasant people. He was so repelled by the buying and selling of teeth that he declared it was under all circumstances immoral.</em>

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