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3 years ago

9

Aaron says that all

1 answer:

Softa [21]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

NO

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the figure attached below, we know that the area of the cone is the sum of area of circle part and cone part of the figure.

to find the surface area of the cone, first measure the radius of the base and find the area of the circle part by formula $\pi r^2$ . Then measure the side (slant height) length of the cone part and find the area of the cone part by the formula $\pi rl$ .

Now the surface area of the cone is circumference of the circle plus area of the cone part.

i.e. $surface\ Area\ of\ the\ cone=\pi r^{2}+\pi rl$

From the above discussion we concluded that surface area of the cone does not depend only on the circumference of the base but also we need side length of the cone part as well thus <em>all cones with a base circumference of 8 inches will </em><em>not </em><em>have the same surface area.</em>

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Second value is given by the sum of 8 and the original number.

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The unknown number.

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