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boyakko [2]
3 years ago
10

One third divided by five sixths

Mathematics
2 answers:
Diano4ka-milaya [45]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The answer is 2/5 (B)

Step-by-step explanation:

1/3 divided by 5/6

To solve, we need to multiply the reciprocal of the divisor (5/6 in this case)

The reciprocal of 5/6 is 6/5

1/3*6/5 = 6/15 which can be reduced to 2/5

The answer is 2/5 (B)

Hope this helps!

Stells [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation:

Two- fifths

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70 POINTS QUESTION ATTACHED (actually attached this time lol)
omeli [17]

Answer:

(1/5 h)^2

Step-by-step explanation:

1/25 h^2

To make this a perfect square we need to take the square root and then square it

(sqrt(1/25 h^2))^2

we know that sqrt(ab) = sqrt(a) sqrt(b)

(sqrt(1/25) sqrt(h^2))^2

(1/5 h)^2

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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Is there some other part of this ?
5 0
4 years ago
A. Two numbers are in the ratio 5:7. When 3 is added to each number, the new ratio becomes 3 : 4. Find the numbers. ​
Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

answer is 3 and ratio of two different numbers

5 0
3 years ago
Pls help me sue tmr pls pls pals question 6
maksim [4K]

Answer:

Ankita is 135cm tall and Nita is 150cm tall- to find what percent of Nita's height Ankita represents you would divide ankita's height by Nita's height then multiply the answer by 100%

135cm/150cm = 0.9 (the centimetres cancel out and leaves a generic unit) then 0.9 x 100% = 90%

so Ankita is 90% of the height of Nita

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
A biologist estimates that 40% of deer in the region carry a certain type of tick. for a sample of 300 deer selectetd at random,
Ratling [72]
Let x be a discrete binomial random variable that measures the number of successes in n trials.
 Let p = 0.4 be the probability of success, that is, the probability that a deer has the aforementioned type of tick.
 So the probability that 124 deer or less have this type of tick is calculated using the probability formula for a binomial distribution.
 P (X <= x) = sum from x = 0 to x = 124 of (300! / ((X! * (300-x)!)) * (P ^ x) * (1-p) ^ n-x.
 Finally the probability is 0.7030
 Below is an image with the formula used and the result

3 0
4 years ago
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