Answer:
Bribery
Explanation:
Bribery is an act of influencing someone's behavior to obtain an undue advantage through giving or receiving unearned rewards .It can be in the form of gifts , money , preferred treatment , and other form of favor , but what actually defines a bribe is the intention behind the gifts.
It has a lot of negative effects either directly or indirectly on the public as it undermines equity , efficiency , integrity in the public service , undercut public confidence in markets , adds to transaction cost and effects the safety and well being of the general public .
Answer:
A. There is a moderately good fit between the regression line and the individual data points on the scatterplot.
Explanation:
A -.5 correlation coefficient indicates a moderate negative correlation, which means that as the x variable increases in value, the y value decreases in value, but only in around half of the situations.
In a scatter plot, this will look like a small cloud of data points that fit more or less well around the regression line. The regression line slopes downward because the variables are inversely proportional (hence the negative coefficient).
Answer:
Sound Audio
Yes. This loss should be accrued.
Explanation:
Accruing the loss contingency gives the readers of the financial statements an early warning of the probable existence of a future loss. A loss contingency arises from a probable future event, which gives rise to an adverse outcome from a lawsuit. Since the cost of the loss can be reasonably estimated and the product recall is virtually certain, it is prudent for Sound Audio to provide for this loss in its December 2021 financial statements.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
1. VaR = Expected return - z × Standard deviation
= 13% - 1.645 × 20%
= -19.90%
Therefore the option a is the correct answer.
2) Now the correlation coefficient is
Variance of the portfolio = (weight of A × Standard deviation 1)^2 + (weight of B × Standard deviation 2)^2 + (2 × weight of A × weight of B × Standard deviation 1 × Standard deviation 2 × correlation 1 and 2)
3.80% = (60% × 24%)^2 + (40% × 18%)^2 + (2 × 60% × 40% × 24% × 18% × correlation 1 and 2)
So the correlation is 0.583
Answer:
4.27 days
Explanation:
Initial taste quality = 1
Quality of tastiness declines using this function
Q(t) = 0.85^t ( t in days )
<u>Determine when the taste quality will be 1/2 of original value</u>
i.e. when Q(t) = 1/2
1/2 = 0.85^t
= In ( 2 ) = - t ( In 0.85 )
∴ t = - In (2) / In (0.85)
= 4.265 days ≈ 4.27 days
