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vitfil [10]
3 years ago
9

A square has a side length of 4 cm. What is the length of the diagonal of the square? What is the length from the corner to the

center of the square?
Mathematics
1 answer:
masya89 [10]3 years ago
7 0
The length of the diagonal of the square is the square root of 32 which equals approximately 5.6569.
The length from the corner to the center of the square is half of the diagonal which is 2.8284. I hope this helps!
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A linear equation in the form y = mx + c has slope m Any line parallel to 3x + 9y = 5 has the same slope 3x + 9y = 5 → 9y = -3x + 5 → y = (-3/9)x + 5/9 → y = -⅓x + 5/9 & So it’s 10 and 0

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What is the inverse of the function f (x) = 3(x + 5)2 – 4, such that x ≤ –5?
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The ball followed a path modelled by the equation h = −0.001! + 0.5 + 2.5 where h is the height of the ball in feet and is the

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2 years ago
Simplify -3x+1y+8x-8y
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

-3x +1y +8x -8y

=5x-7y

The answer is: 5x-7y

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Based on your results in Question 1, how is the volume of the cone related to the volume of the cylinder, given that their bases
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Vcylinder : Vcone = 3:1

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3 years ago
Tic-tac-toe: In the game of tic-tac-toe, if all moves are performed randomly the probability that the game will end in a draw is
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And if we find the individual probability we got:

P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.127)^0 (1-0.127)^{7-0}=0.3865

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=7, p=0.127)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

And we want to find this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And if we find the individual probability we got:

P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.127)^0 (1-0.127)^{7-0}=0.3865

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

6 0
3 years ago
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