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WINSTONCH [101]
3 years ago
14

Which of the following best explains why most industrialized nations in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries were b

uilding empires?
A] They needed colonies for their growing populations

B] They desired a return to the empire-building of ancient times

C] They wanted to make Christianity the world's religion

D] They required more natural resources and new markets
History
1 answer:
anzhelika [568]3 years ago
7 0

The correct answer for the given question above would be the last option. The statement that best explains why most industrialized nations in the late 19th and early 20th centuries were building empires is that, they  required more natural resources and new markets.

Please mark brainliest

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Which civilization did NOT practice slavery?<br> Anasazi<br> Aztec<br> Incan
Shtirlitz [24]

Hello! Your answer is anasazi!

I had this question and I read the lesson and your answer is anasazi!

Explanation:

The aztecs and incans DID in fact practice slavery. The person above me is wrong but I know im right because I got this right.

Please mark brainliest tyvm!

Have a wonderful day<3

6 0
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What did the pure food and drug act of 1906 not do
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That the introduction into any State or Territory or the District of Columbia ... of any article of food or drugs which is adulterated or misbranded, within the meaning of this Act, is hereby prohibited?.

That the examinations of specimens of foods and drugs shall be made in the Bureau of Chemistry of the Department of Agriculture, or under the direction and supervision of such Bureau, for the purpose of determining from such examinations whether such articles are adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of this Act....

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I<span>t would not stretch matters to say that the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 (P.L. 59-384, 34 Stat. 768), also known as the Wiley Act, stands as the most consequential regulatory statute in the history of the United States. The act not only gave unprecedented new regulatory powers to the federal government, it also empowered a bureau that evolved into today's Food and Drug Administration (FDA). The legacy of the 1906 act includes federal regulatory authority over one-quarter of gross domestic product, and includes market gatekeeping power over human and animal drugs, foods and preservatives, medical devices, biologics and vaccines. Other statutes (such as the Interstate Commerce Act of 1887, the Sherman and Clayton antitrust laws, and the Federal Trade Commission Act of 1914) have received more study, but the Pure Food and Drug Act has had the longest-lasting and most widespread economic, political, and institutional impact.</span>


4 0
4 years ago
What was the purpose of the sugar act and the stamp act ?
skad [1K]
The Sugar Act, also known as the American Revenue Act, was a revenue-raising act passed by the British Parliament of Great Britain in April of 1764. The earlier Molasses Act of 1733, which had imposed a tax of six pence per gallon of molasses, had never been effectively collected due to colonial resistance and evasion.

I hope this helps, God bless, and have a great day!
Brainliest is always appreciated :)
5 0
4 years ago
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vekshin1
I believe that the answer is B
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9 Which point of view is expressed in this
Rudiy27

Answer:

The answer would be A.

Explanation:give brainliest if this helped :)

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