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natali 33 [55]

The decay factor would be 1 minus the percent of decrease:

1-0.12 = 0.88

6 0

3 years ago

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A real estate agent has 14 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a

Ratling [72]

Answer:

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

$n = 14, p = 0.5$

Compute the probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Either you sell 4 or less properties in one week, or you sell more. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

$P(X \leq 4) + P(X > 4) = 1$

We want to find $P(X > 4)$ . So

$P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4)$

In which

$P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{14,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{14} = 0.000061$

$P(X = 1) = C_{14,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{13} = 0.000854$

$P(X = 2) = C_{14,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0056$

$P(X = 3) = C_{14,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0222$

$P(X = 4) = C_{14,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0611$

So

$P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.000061 + 0.000854 + 0.0056 + 0.0222 + 0.0611 = 0.0898$

Finally

$P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4) = 1 - 0.0898 = 0.9102$

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

8 0

3 years ago

Will give you BRAINLEST

____ [38]

Answer:

Both boxes have the same amount of work applied to them. The smaller box will get to the end first.

Step-by-step explanation:

For the 400 kg box, we can say,

force = 1 newton

force = mass*acceleration

1 = 400*acceleration

acceleration = 1/400 meters per second^2

acceleration = 0.0025 meters per second^2

Each second, the larger box's velocity is increasing by 0.0025 meters per second.

While the smaller box would have an acceleration of...

force = 1 newton

force = mass*acceleration

1 = 200*acceleration

acceleration = 1/200 meters per second^2

acceleration = 0.005 meters per second^2

Which is twice as much as the larger box.

Put simply: if the force applied is the same for the two boxes, then the smaller box will have larger acceleration. This is because more force is needed to push on the larger mass.

Because the smaller box has more acceleration, it will naturally travel faster compared to the larger box. Therefore, the smaller box reaches the goal line faster.

7 0

3 years ago

An evergreen nursery usually sells a certain shrub after 9 years of growth and shaping. The growth rate during those 9 years is

Volgvan

Answer:

(a) After t years, the height is

18t² + 3t + 10

(b) The shrubs are847 cm tall when they are sold.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given growth rate

dh/dt = 1.8t + 3

dh = (18t + 3)dt

Integrating this, we have

h = 18t² + 3t + C

When t = 0, h = 10cm

Then

10 = C

So

(a) h = 18t² + 3t + 10

(b) Because they are sold after every 9 years, then at t = 9

h = 18(9)² + 3(9) + 10

= 810 + 27 + 10

= 847 cm

3 0

3 years ago

Which describes the correct way to convert minutes to hours?

vivado [14]

Answer:

Divide the number of minutes by 60

Step-by-step explanation:

here is the example:

you have 120 minutes, you divide it by 60 and you get 2 hours

3 0

3 years ago

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