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pav-90 [236]
3 years ago
13

Kray Inc., which produces a single product, has provided the following data for its most recent month of operations:

Business
1 answer:
Ilya [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$76

Explanation:

The computation of Unit product cost under variable costing is shown below:-

Unit product cost under variable costing = Direct material + Direct labor + Variable manufacturing overhead

= $47 + $21 + $8

= $76

So, for calculating the Unit product cost under variable costing we simply added the direct material, direct labor and variable manufacturing overhead.

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Free cash flows are a. dividends that have been distributed to shareholders that are taxed as capital gains. b. liquid financial
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

The correct answer is d. liquid financial assets that for tax purposes must be reinvested in the firm if not distributed as dividends to shareholders.

Explanation:

One of the variables that best measure a company's financial capacity is free cash flow (FCF). It consists of the amount of money available to cover debt or distribute dividends, once payment to suppliers and purchases of fixed assets (construction, machinery ...) have been deducted.

In general, this calculation serves to measure the ability of a business to generate cash regardless of its financial structure. That is, the FCF is the cash flow generated by the company that is available to meet payments to its financing providers.

In short, the FCF is the balance of treasury that is free in the company, that is, the money available once the mandatory payments have been met. Normally, the FCF is used to remunerate shareholders via dividends or to amortize the principal of the debt and meet interest.

3 0
3 years ago
QUESTION 1 of 10: Large-cap stocks have a market capitalization of:
bekas [8.4K]
It’s b I already did the question
3 0
3 years ago
Justin Slugger is about to sign a contract with the Columbus Homers. The professional baseball team has given him two options of
Andrej [43]

Answer:

Option 1 Present value = $18,181,818.18

Option2 Present value = $20,916,718.64

Option 2 which is an annuity for 15 years is a better option as it has a higher present value than option 1.

Explanation:

To decide the better option, we need to calculate the present value of option 1 which is the lumpsum and the present value of option 2 which is an annuity and compare these values.

The present value of option 1 can be calculated as follows,

Option 1 Present value = Future value / (1 + r)^t

Where,

  • r is the rate of return of interest or discount rate
  • t is the time in years

Option 1 Present value = 20,000,000 / (1+0.1)^1

Option 1 Present value = $18,181,818.18

The present value of option 2 can be calculate using the formula of present value of annuity due as the payments will be made at the start of the period. The formula for present value of annuity due is attached.

Option2 Present value = 2,500,000 + 2,500,000 * [(1 - (1+0.1)^-14) / 0.1]

Option2 Present value = $20,916,718.64

Option 2 which is an annuity for 15 years is a better option as it has a higher present value than option 1.

7 0
3 years ago
What is the interest rate for an initial investment of $100,000 to grow to $300,000 in 10 years?
Alex

The interest would be 11.61232% to be exact.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Gabriele Enterprises has bonds on the market making annual payments, with 10 years to maturity, a par value of $1,000, and selli
Vlad1618 [11]

The coupon rate is 4.29%.

           

FV = 1000          

PMT  =  ?          

N  = 8          

I   = 5.10%          

PV =  -948          

           

Inputting the above details on the calculator you can find PMT

$42.92 PMT(5.1%,8,-948,1000)      

           

Alternatively, the PMT function in excel can also be used  

           

Coupon Rate = 42.92/1000  

= 4.29%    

                       

This gives you a coupon rate of 4.29%

Learn more about PMT here: brainly.com/question/24703884

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
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