Answer:
price variance: <em>1</em><em>3</em><em>,</em><em>0</em><em>50 favorable</em>
quantity variance:<em> -1,760 unfavorable</em>
Explanation:
standard quantity 5
standard price 1.1 per pound
actual quantity for 4900 units
8000 + 25,500 -7,400 = 26,100 pounds
standard quantity 4,900*5= 24,500
actual price 15,300/25,500 = 0.60
standard price = 1.10
Because actual is lower than STD the company saved money spending. It is favorable.
Because the company used more pounds than STD the quantity variance is unfavorable
Answer:
Consider the following calculations
Explanation:
Step 1. Given information.
Asset Cost Adjusted Basis
--------------------------------------------------
Skidder 230,000 40,000
Driller 120,000 60,000
Platform 620,000 0
-------------------------------------------------
Total 970,000 100,000
Step 2. Formulas needed to solve the exercise.
Allocation for each asset = value sold * (adjusted basis / total)
Gain on sale = Sales price - Adjusted basis amount
Step 3. Calculation and Step 4. Solution.
Sales price is allocated on the basis of adjusted value.
- Skidder = 300.000 * 40.000/100.000 = 120.000
- Driller = 300.000*60.000/100.000 = 180.000
- Platform = 300.000*0/100.000 = 0
Gain on sale = Sales price - Adjusted basis amount
= 300.000 - (40.000 + 60.000 + 0)
= 200.000
Naomi is willing to pay $120 dollars for a multi-cat condo. She ends up paying $90. Naomi's consumer surplus is $30.
Consumer surplus is also known as buyer's surplus. It is the economic measure of a customer's excess benefit. It is calculated by analyzing the difference between the consumer's willingness to pay for a product and the actual price they pay.
Consumer surplus is calculated by:
Consumer surplus = Maximum price buyer is willing to pay – Actual price.
So, Naomi is willing to pay $120 dollars for a multi-cat condo but she ends up paying $90.
Therefore, $120 - $90 = $30
Hence, Naomi's consumer surplus is $30.
To learn more about Consumer surplus here:
brainly.com/question/15224764
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