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andreyandreev [35.5K]
3 years ago
9

You are offered two jobs, one in Chicago paying $67,000 and one in Dallas paying $58,000. The price index in Chicago is 110.8, a

nd in Dallas it is 91.5. If real wages are the only consideration, then you would _________.
Business
1 answer:
Sergeu [11.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

you definitely take the job in Dallas because the real wage is higher there.

Explanation:

given data

Chicago paying = $67,000

Dallas paying = $58,000

price index in Chicago = 110.8

price index in Dallas = 91.5

solution

we get here Real wage in Chicago that is

Real wage in Chicago = 67000 × \frac{100}{110.8}  

Real wage in Chicago = $60469

and

Real wage in Dallas is  

Real wage in Dallas = 58000 × \frac{100}{91.5}  

Real wage in Dallas = $63388

so you definitely take the job in Dallas because the real wage is higher there.

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What is the difference in accounting treatment of unrealized gains and losses across these three categories of investments
hammer [34]

Answer:

Unrealized gains and losses treatment:

Available for sale - recorded in OCI

Held till maturity - not recognized in financial statements until maturity

Held for Trading - Fair value through profit and loss

Explanation:

There are three categories of financial instruments. Available for Sale AFS, Held for trading HFT and Held till maturity HTM. Financial instruments are classified in these categories and then treatments is according to their classification. IAS 39 and IFRS 9 have provided complete guidelines for the treatment of the financial securities.

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Suppose that Jack and Hal and Sophia enter into an agreement to sell the restaurant. The contract includes the non-competition a
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3 years ago
The Quorum Company has a prospective 6-year project that requires initial fixed assets costing $962,000, annual fixed costs of $
diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670

Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}

= inflows * 3.8887

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 =  962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

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In 5-10 sentences, answer the Question; What is a Market Economy?
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