Answer: $96,500
Explanation:
Manufacturing cost includes all the costs that went into production in a period including direct costs and manufacturing overhead:
= Direct materials + Direct labor + Manufacturing Overhead
Manufacturing overhead = Beginning work in process + Factory overhead - Ending work in process
= 11,200 + 52,600 - 11,800
= $52,000
Manufacturing cost = 19,500 + 25,000 + 52,000
= $96,500
Answer:
GDP is likely to remain same as a result of this conversion.
Explanation:
GDP is the total value of goods & services, produced by an economy, during a given year.
It can be calculated by 2 methods
- By Expenditure method : GDP = Private Final Capital Expenditure + Govt. Final Consumption Expenditure + Gross Domestic Capital Formation + Net Exports
- By Income method : NDP = Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus (Rent + Profit + Income) + Mixed Income
Given case - Converting a rented apartment into a resident owned condominium , with value of housing services = rent formerly paid :
This brings no change in the GDP, as : The apartment 'rent' previously paid was included in 'operating surplus' of national income, by Income method. And, the equal condominium value is now included in investment addition i.e 'Gross domestic capital formation' , by Income method.
Given:
D = 40 pcs /hour
T = 36/60 = 0.60 hours
X = 0.20
C = 10
Find the value of N.
N = DT (1 + X) / C
N = [40/hr * 0.60 hr (1 + 0.20)] / 10
N = [24 (1.20)] / 10
N = 28.8 / 10
N = 2.88 or 3
3 containers should be used to support the operation.
Answer:
B = 0.287 Tesla
According to thumb rule the direction of magnet is to the east.
Explanation:
F = BiL sin∅
note that F = mg
B = magnetic field
i = current
therefore,
mg = BiLsin∅
Make B subject of the formula
B = mg/iLsin∅
m/L = mass per length of the wire and it is given in gram per centimeter . It should be converted to kg per meter.
m/L = 0.440 g/cm
convert to kg/m = 0.440 × 0.001 kg × 100 m = 0.044 kg/m
B = 9.8 × 0.044 / sin 90 × 1.50 × 1
B = 0.4312/ 1.50
B = 0.28746666666
B = 0.287 Tesla
According to thumb rule the direction of magnet is to the east.
Answer:
The ending balance in the Allowance for Bad Debts is 20,500 CREDIT
Explanation:
The ending balance of Allowance for bad debts would be the 2.5% of sales
The adjustment is made to get the allowance for Bad Debt match the estimate uncollectible ammounts.
Notice it state <em>"company adjusted for bad debt expense"</em>
This means<u> it debit this account as much as it needed to be</u> to make allowance match the estimate allowance.
The write-off are transaction durign the period. They are irrelevant
So the ending balance is:
<em>2.5% of credit sales of 820,000 = $20,500</em>
It is important to remember that <u>Allowance is a counter-asset account</u>. His <em>normal balance is credit</em>, so the<u> final balance is credit.</u>