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nlexa [21]
3 years ago
5

On October 1, 2018, Iona Frisbee Co. issued stock options for 300,000 shares to a division manager. The options have an estimate

d fair value of $3 each. To provide additional incentive for managerial achievement, the options are not exercisable unless divisional revenue increases by 6% in three years. Frisbee initially estimates that it is probable the goal will be achieved. How much compensation will be recorded in each of the next three years?
Business
2 answers:
Gemiola [76]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$300,000

Explanation:

Option expenses to be recognized in the first year ,

= \frac{N\ *\ FV}{Total\ vesting\ period}    ×  period elapsed   - Expenses already recognized

wherein N = No of options expected to be vested

              FV = Fair value on the grant date

              Vesting period = The time period after which the options can be exercised

Thus, after the first year, employee compensation expenses to be recognized

= \frac{300000 *\ 3}{3\ years} × 1 year = $300,000 - 0 = $300,000

Similarly, for the second year, option expenses to be recognized would be,

= \frac{300000 *\ 3}{3\ years}  × 2 years - $300,000 =  $300,000

Similarly for the third year

= \frac{300000 *\ 3}{3\ years} × 3 years - ($300,000+ 300,000)  = $300,000

The journal entry to be passed each year would be

Stock Option Compensation Expense A/C   Dr. $300,000

                           To Stock Options A/C                        $300000  

(Being stock option expenses for the year recognized)

horrorfan [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Per year compensation = $300,000

Explanation:

Given:

Number of shares = 300,000

Estimated fair value = $3 each

Total number of year = 3 year initially

Computation of total compensation :

Total compensation = Number of shares × Estimated fair value

Total compensation = 300,000 × $3

Total compensation = $900,000

Computation of Per year compensation:

Per year compensation = Total compensation / Total number of year

Per year compensation = $900,000 / 3

Per year compensation = $300,000

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Bunnell Corporation is a manufacturer that uses job-order costing. On January 1, the company’s inventory balances were as follow
Anestetic [448]

Answer:

3.

DR Selling and Administrative Salaries               $240,000

      Manufacturing Overhead                                $150,000

      Work in Process                                                $600,000

CR Wages Payable                                                                      $990,000

4.

Manufacturing Overhead Applied

= 41,000 hours * 16.25

= $666,250

5. Total Manufacturing cost to be added = Raw Materials + Direct Labor + Manufacturing Overhead

= 480,000 + 600,000 + 666,250

= $1,746,250

6.

DR Finished Goods                                             $1,680,000

CR Work in Process                                                                $1,680,000

7.

Ending Balance = Beginning balance + Raw materials + Direct labor + Manufacturing Overhead - Cost transferred to Finished goods

= 18,000 + 480,000 + 666,250 + 84,250 - 1,680,000

= $84,250

9. Predetermined overhead cost - Actual cost = 666,250 - 650,000 = $16,250.

<u>Overapplied</u> as predetermined cost was more than Actual.

12. Finished goods = Beginning balance + Cost transferred from WIP - Cost of goods sold

= 35,000 + 1,680,000 - 1,690,000

= $25,000

13.

Adjusted Cost of Goods sold = Cost of goods sold - Overapplied

= 1,690,000 - 16,250

= $1,673,750

14. Gross Margin = Sales - Adjusted COGS

= 2,800,000 - 1,673,750

= $1,126,350

15. Net Operating Income

= Gross Margin - Selling and Administrative salaries - Selling and Administrative expenses

= 1,126,350 - 240,000 - 367,000

= $519,250

6 0
3 years ago
“All cheques are bills but all bills are not cheque” –Explain
aleksklad [387]

All cheques are bills but all bills are not cheque.

This is correct statement because both cheque and bill are piece of paper which displays money which is to be paid to someone.

A bill is a document which is drawn on any person and there is no name on the bill whereas cheque is a document which is drawn on the payee name only.

Both of these are documents which are used to pay the amount to someone.

A cheque can be drawn payable on demand while bill is drawn on expiry of certain period.

Learn more at brainly.com/question/24469524

7 0
2 years ago
Suppose a firm estimates its WACC to be 10%. Should the WACC be used to evaluate all of its potential projects, even if they var
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

The WACC will be 10% for average risk

below when the risk is low

and above 10% when the risk is higher than average

as the cost of capital (required return from the stockholders) will increase pushing the WACC higher

Explanation:

As the WACC is composed by the cost of debt and the cost of equity a higher risk will require a better return for the investor thus, the equity proportion that determinates the WACC will change along the project risk.

6 0
3 years ago
Diamond Company is considering investing in new equipment that will cost $1,400,000 with a 10-year useful life. The new equipmen
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

the cash payback period is 6.09 years

Explanation:

The computation of the cash payback period is shown below:

= Initial Investment  ÷ Net annual cash inflow

= $1,400,000 ÷ $230,000

= 6.09

Now the net annual cash flow is  

. Net operating income $90,000.00

Add: Depreciation   $140,000.00

Net annual cash inflow   $230,000.00

Hence, the cash payback period is 6.09 years

6 0
2 years ago
the difference between the actual quanity and the standard quanity, multiplied by the standard price is the
dalvyx [7]

Answer: Direct materials quantity variance.

Explanation:

Direct Material quantity variance is the difference between the actual quantity of materials used in production and the standard quantity that was supposed to be used, multiplied by the standard price of the material.

It is a method that checks the company's efficiency is being able to use raw materials to produce goods. If the Actual quantity needed is greater than the Standard quantity, this will be considered an Unfavorable Variance and mean that the company was not efficient in using the materials.

Causes of this can be low quality of materials and inadequate employee training.

6 0
3 years ago
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