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Anon25 [30]
3 years ago
10

What is the decimal for 4 2/3?

Mathematics
1 answer:
muminat3 years ago
8 0
4.67 would be a rounded answer. Really it's 4.666666666666666666 (the 6 go on forever) but we can't write that out.
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Simplify: 10 • 12 + - 15 divided by 5 + 2 (9-4)
Ket [755]
Alright. So the problem is

10*12+-15/5+2(9-4)

Lets break down what we can for now

First focus on parenthesized, multiplying, and dividing in the problem.

10*12=120 15/5=3 (9-4)=5

120+-3+2*5

So the next step, we see 2*5 and a negative -3 on top of a positive symbol.

2*5=10

120-3+10

Now subtract from the left to the right and get your answer.

120-3=117

117+10=127


7 0
4 years ago
What is the answer to this equation 6x+3-6x=3
aev [14]

Answer:

0=0

Step-by-step explanation:

6x-6x=0

cancel the terms on both sides of the equation

0=0  the sum of two opposites equals zero

this statement is correct

5 0
3 years ago
Solve the following equation using the quadratic formula.
konstantin123 [22]

Answer:

x = 4   ±9i

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2 - 8x + 97 = 0

Complete the square by subtracting 97 from each side

x^2 - 8x =- 97

Take the coefficient of x

-8 and divide by 2

-8/2 = -4

Then square it

(-4)^2 = 16

Add it to each side

x^2 - 8x + 16 = -97+16

(x-4)^2 = -81

Take the square root of each side

x-4 = ±sqrt(-81)

x-4 = ±9i

Add 4 to each side

x = 4   ±9i

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
Write equation to the line when m=2 and b=-1<br><br> Thanks!
vaieri [72.5K]
The equation of a line in slope intercept form is y=mx+b, which when you plug in the numbers becomes y=2x-1.
6 0
3 years ago
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