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Sindrei [870]
3 years ago
14

A bank has a negative repricing gap. This implies that Multiple Choice some RSAs are financed by fixed-rate liabilities. some RS

Ls are financing fixed-rate assets. some RSAs are financing equity. the bank has no fixed-rate assets. None of the options are correct.
Business
1 answer:
andriy [413]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Some RSL's are financing fixed-rate assets.

Explanation:

Repricing gap is the difference between the sensitive interest rates charged by the banks on the loans given and sensitive interest rates payable by the banks on the deposits made by the customers or other liabilities.

A negative repricing gap is a situation where the interest  payable by the bank is more than the interest receivable by the bank.

RSL's means the rate sensitive liabilities that is the rate payable by the banks on the deposits or its other liabilities.

A bank can have a negative balance when a bank uses its rate of sensitive liabilities for financing the fixed assets for its use.

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On July 15, Piper Co. sold $24,000 of merchandise (costing $12,000) for cash. The sales tax rate is 4%. On August 1, Piper sent
disa [49]

Answer and Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

1. Jul 15

Cash Dr, $29,960  

        To Sales revenue $24,000

        To Sales tax payable $960

($24,000 × 4%)

(Being sales is recorded)

2. Jul 15

Cost of goods sold Dr, $12,000

        To Merchandise inventory $12,000

(Being cost of goods sold is recorded)

3. Aug 01

Sales tax payable Dr, $960

        To Cash $960

(Being payment of sales tax is recorded)

4. Nov 03

Cash Dr, $720.00  

        To Unearned ticket revenue $720.00

(Being sale of advance tickets is recorded)

5. Nov 20

Unearned ticket revenue Dr, $120

( $720 ÷ 6)

        To Ticket revenue $120

(Being ticket revenue is recorded)

3 0
3 years ago
A firm wants to create a WACC of 11.2 percent. The firm's cost of equity is 16.8 percent and its pretax cost of debt is 8.7 perc
Andre45 [30]

Answer:

Debt equity ratio = 1.01

Explanation:

given data

WACC = 11.2 percent

cost of equity = 16.8 percent

pretax cost of debt = 8.7 percent

tax rate = 35 percent

to find out

What does the debt-equity ratio need to be for the firm to achieve its target WACC

solution

we get here WACC that is express as

WACC = Wd × Rd × (1-t) + We × Ke      ..................1

here Wd is weight of debit and t is tax rate and Ke is cost of equity and

Wd + We = 1

so We = 1 - Wd

put value in equation 1

WACC = Wd × Rd × (1-t) + We × Ke

11.20% = Wd × 8.70%  ×(1-35%) + (1-Wd) × 16.80%

solve and we get

Wd = 0.5025

so We will be

We = 1 - 0.5025

We = 0.4975

and

Debt equity ratio will be

Debt equity ratio = \frac{0.5025}{0.4975}

Debt equity ratio = 1.01

6 0
4 years ago
Which statement is false?
german

Answer:

Financial intermediaries are beneficial to investors.

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
. ___________________________ are formal written policies describing employee behavior when using company computer and network s
yawa3891 [41]

Answer:

D - Acceptable use policies

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is (are) correct concerning the parties of a trust deed?1. The trustee has naked title2. The lender is na
svlad2 [7]

Answer:

  1. The trustee has naked title
  2. The lender is named the beneficiary
  3. The trustor has legal title

Explanation:

A Trust deed is a legal agreement that allows for a debtor to transfer ownership of a physical real estate property to a Trustee so that that trustee may hold the property as security for a loan transaction involving the lender and the debtor.

The trustee in this agreement holds a naked title which is a legal title to a property that is given to a trustee as it has no ownership benefits. The beneficiary is also named to be the lender and the Trustor retains the legal title.

5 0
4 years ago
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