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anzhelika [568]
4 years ago
9

Which one of the following can be classified as an annuity but not as a perpetuity?

Business
1 answer:
Virty [35]4 years ago
6 0

Answer: Option D

Explanation: Annuity refers to the payments made by an individual to another at equal intervals of time. And perpetuity refers to an annuity that has no end.

Hence the correct option is D. As in first two options the amount of payment will increase. Also in the last option the payments are made forever and equally so it is a perpetual annuity.

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What is first step of the financial planning process
Komok [63]

Answer:

Establishing and defining the client-planner relationship is the first step in the financial planning process.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Financial planning is a technique that determines how a business or an organization plans to achieve its goal and objectives. This plan enables the necessary activities, resources, and materials used to achieve the objectives of a business.

The financial planning process typically involves 6 major steps to clear the organization objectives.

  • First step is used to determine the financial status of an    organization based upon incomes, savings and profits earned.
  • The second step defines the needs and wants of an individual in framing his goal.
  • The third step is used to develop alternate methods in solving problems.
  • The fourth step evaluates the alternate methods and it suggest the best alternative to be followed.
  • The fifth step suggest the individual to take necessary action to achieve their goals.
  • The sixth step implements the method of revising and rescheduling the actions as per the plan to clear the objectives.
8 0
3 years ago
To<br>which gas is reffered to as laughing gas<br>اماده) که​
Anna35 [415]

Answer:

Nitrous oxide is a safe and effective sedative agent that is mixed with oxygen and inhaled through a small mask that fits over your nose to help you relax. Nitrous oxide, sometimes called “laughing gas,” is one option your dentist may offer to help make you more comfortable during certain procedures.

I don't understand the Arabic part

anyways hope my ans helps

pls give brainliest to my answer

be sure to follow me

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have a good day

7 0
3 years ago
Channel richness is, in part, determined by the ability to facilitate rapid, two-way feedback.
shtirl [24]

Answer:

A. an email.

B. You can respond immediately to what the person is saying.

Explanation:

An email is a digital message which sent to communicate something via network. Emails are less responsive than an instant message. The emails are suitable mostly for office and are a formal mode of communication. An instant message is easy and fast which enables quick two-way feedback. A person can respond immediately to the text message when it is received making instant messages a rapid mode.

8 0
3 years ago
The nurse instructs a client on how to collect a 24 hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. which statement by the
snow_lady [41]

Answer:

A statement from the patient expressing a lack of understanding or an inability to obtain the specimen will cause the nurse to intervene.

Explanation:

Intervention in nursing practice entails being an educator, properly educating patients and patient relatives on diagnostic procedures. improvement of health and sample collection. Intervention also entails advocating for the patient to family and friends when necessary.

If a patient has to collect a 24 hour urine sample and because of a lack of understanding caused by improper communication or other underlying medical defects, the nurse intervenes by ensuring the patient gets help in the sample collection process.

If the patient also expresses a lack of access to a proper toilet system, the nurse could intervene in advocating for the patient to be provided closer proximity to a functioning toilet system.

6 0
3 years ago
Sweet Company’s outstanding stock consists of 1,000 shares of noncumulative 5% preferred stock with a $100 par value and 10,000
avanturin [10]

Answer:

Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

Preferred dividend per year:

= (Outstanding preferred stock × Par value of preferred stock ) × 5% preferred stock

= (1,000 × $100) × 5%

= ($100,000) × 5%

= $5,000

Any balance left over would be paid to common stockholders.

Year 1:

Paid to preferred stockholders = $2,000

Paid to common stockholders = 0

Year 2:

Paid to preferred stockholders = $5,000

Paid to common stockholders = ($6,000 - $5,000)

                                                  = $1,000

Year 3:

Paid to preferred stockholders = $5,000

Paid to common stockholders = ($32,000 - $5,000)

                                                  = $27,000

Therefore,

Total amount of dividends paid to preferred Shareholders:

= Year 1 + Year 2 + Year 3

= $2,000 + $5,000 + $5,000

= $12,000

Total amount of dividends paid to common Shareholders:

= Year 1 + Year 2 + Year 3

= $0 + $1,000 + $27,000

= $28,000

5 0
3 years ago
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