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uysha [10]
3 years ago
12

Write the repeating decimal as a fraction.0.1872 ​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Gekata [30.6K]3 years ago
7 0
117/625 is the fraction
patriot [66]3 years ago
7 0
The answer is 117/625 if you go to calculator soup you plug in the decimal and it automatically converts it :)
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Properties of Light Lab Report
lakkis [162]

Answer:

Can You Give Me Some More Information

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Chandra has some one dollar bills and some five-dollar bills in her wallet. She has 11 bills. The value of the bills is $39. Sol
blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

She has 7 $5 dollar bills and 4 $1 dollar bills.

Step-by-step explanation:

& times 5 plus 4.

6 0
4 years ago
What is the solution to 5-2x^2=-15?
Phantasy [73]
Isolate x.

-2x^{2}=-20
x^{2}=10
x=\sqrt{10}


6 0
4 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Given that f(x) = 6x + 2 and g(x) = solve for g(f(1)).
bixtya [17]
f(x)=6x+2\\\\
g(f(1))=6*1+2=6+2=8\\\\
Solution\ is \ g(x)=8
4 0
3 years ago
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