Answer:
GDP is likely to remain same as a result of this conversion.
Explanation:
GDP is the total value of goods & services, produced by an economy, during a given year.
It can be calculated by 2 methods
- By Expenditure method : GDP = Private Final Capital Expenditure + Govt. Final Consumption Expenditure + Gross Domestic Capital Formation + Net Exports
- By Income method : NDP = Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus (Rent + Profit + Income) + Mixed Income
Given case - Converting a rented apartment into a resident owned condominium , with value of housing services = rent formerly paid :
This brings no change in the GDP, as : The apartment 'rent' previously paid was included in 'operating surplus' of national income, by Income method. And, the equal condominium value is now included in investment addition i.e 'Gross domestic capital formation' , by Income method.
Introduction
“Project risk analysis,” as described by The Project Management Institute (PMI®), “includes the processes concerned with conducting risk management, planning, identification analysis, response, and monitoring and control on a project;./…” (PMI, 2004, p 237) These processes include risk identification and quantification, risk response development and risk response control.
Because these processes interact with each other as well as with processes in other parts of an organization, companies are beginning to measure risk across all of their projects as part of an enterprise portfolio.
Risk management can be as simple as identifying a list of technological, operational and business risks, or as comprehensive as in-depth schedule risk analysis using Monte Carlo simulation. But because risk is a driver in an organization's growth – the greater the risk, the greater the reward – the adoption of a structured enterprisewide project risk analysis program will give managers confidence in their decision-making to foster organizational growth and increase ROI for their stakeholders.
Choosing the right projects
How well an organization examines the risks associated with its initiatives, how well it understands the way that projects planned or underway are impacted by risk, and how well it develops mitigation strategies to protect the organization, can mean the difference between a crisis and an opportunity.
Examples abound of companies that have seen their fortunes rise or drop based on the effectiveness of their risk management – a pharmaceutical company makes headlines when its promising new drug brings unforeseen side effects. Or a large telecom corporation pours millions of dollars into perfecting long distance, while new technologies are presenting more exciting opportunities.
Today that pharmaceutical is distracted by lawsuits and financial payouts, finding itself with a shrinking pipeline of new drugs. The telecom, on the other hand, after using a portfolio risk management software application to rationalize and rank its initiatives, made the decision to shift its research dollars away from perfecting long distance and into developing VOIP -- rejuvenating and reinforcing its leadership position.
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question will be Option D (Financial distress and agency costs).
Explanation:
- A cost of an agency is a form of company's internal expense that comes from an employee working on behalf of action of the principle. Agency costs usually occur from core redundancies, confusion, and delays, such as shareholder and management conflicts of interest.
- Distress expense applies to the expenses that a financially distressed company faces beyond the business cost, such as increased capital expenses. Troubled companies tend to have a tougher time fulfilling their financial responsibilities, which turns into a higher chance of default.
- When evaluating the company's value as a feature of market structure, the present value of the tax shield gain is balanced by the current value of the anticipated financial distress and agency expenses, which results in an ideal internal market structure.
Therefore, Option C is the right answer.
Answer:
The ammount due at the end of the loan adds for $27,456
Explanation:
If the payment is in full at maturity, the man must pay the principal of 26,000 plus the interest during the period of 4 years.
It is important to notice that the loan is done at simple interest, so the interest does not capitalize.
