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Ierofanga [76]
4 years ago
14

Machine A costs $750,000 and depreciates on a 15-year schedule. Machine B costs $480,000 and depreciates on a 24-year schedule.

Which machine has a higher Net Fixed Asset value on the Balance Sheet in year 10?
Business
1 answer:
oksano4ka [1.4K]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Machine B has higher Net Fixed Asset Value

Explanation:

Computing the Net Fixed Asset Value using the formula as:

For Machine A

Net Fixed Asset Value (NFA) = Cost - Depreciation

where

Cost is $750,000

Depreciation is computed as:

Depreciation = $750,000 / 15 × 10

= $500,000

So,

NFA of machine A = $750,000 - $500,000

= $250,000

For Machine B

Net Fixed Asset Value (NFA) = Cost - Depreciation

where

Cost is $480,000

Depreciation is computed as:

Depreciation = $480,000 / 24 × 10

= $200,000

So,

NFA of machine A = $480,000 - $200,000

= $280,000

Hence, Machine B has the higher value which is $280,000

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Read 2 more answers
The yield to maturity on 1-year zero-coupon bonds is currently 7.5%; the YTM on 2-year zeros is 8.5%. The Treasury plans to issu
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

Task a: $102.74

Task b: 2.73%

Task c: $100.44

Task d: $101.84

Explanation:

<u>a.At what price will the bond sell? </u>

<u>Solution:</u>

The price of the bond = Coupon payment for year 1 / (1+ YTM on 1-year zero-coupon bonds) + (Coupon payment for year 2 + maturity Value) / (1+ YTM on 2-year zero-coupon bonds) ^2

= $10/ (1+7.5%) + ($10 + $100)/ (1+8.5%) ^2

=$9.30 +$93.44

=$102.74

<u>b. What will the yield to maturity on the bond be?</u>

<u>Solution:</u>

We have following formula for calculation of bond’s yield to maturity (YTM)

Bond price P0 = C/ (1+YTM) + (M+C) / (1+YTM) ^2

Where,

P0 = the current market price of bond =$102.74

C = coupon payment = 10% of $100 = $10

YTM = interest rate, or yield to maturity =?

M = value at maturity, or par value = $ 100

Now we have,

$102.74 = $10/ (1+YTM) + $110 / (1+YTM) ^2

YTM = 2.73%

<u>(c) If the expectations theory of the yield curve is correct, what is the market expectation of the price that the bond will sell for next year? </u>

<u>Solution </u>

Under expectation theory

ft = E(rt )

Therefore (1+ ft) = (1.085) ^ 2 / 1.075 = 1.0951

Or ft = E(rt )= 1.0951 -1 = 0.0951 or 9.51%

By using this theory the bond price on year,

P = $110/1.0951 = $100.44

<u>(d) Recalculate your answer to (c) if you believe in the liquidity preference theory and you believe that the liquidity premium is 1.5%.</u>

<u></u>

<u>Solution</u>

If the liquidity premium is 1.5%,

Then ft = E (rt) + L

Where L is liquidity premium = 1.5%

Therefore,

E(rt) = ft - L = 9.51% - 1.5% = 8.01%

And price of the bond

P = $110/1.0801 = $101.84

4 0
3 years ago
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