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Hatshy [7]
3 years ago
11

On November 1, 2016, Jamison Inc. adopted a plan to discontinue its barge division, which qualifies as a separate component of t

he business according to GAAP regarding discontinued operations. The disposal of the division was expected to be concluded by April 30, 2017. On December 31, 2016, the company's year-end, the following information relative to the discontinued division was accumulated: Operating loss Jan. 1–Dec. 31, 2016 $65 million Estimated operating losses, Jan. 1 to April 30, 2017 80 million Excess of fair value, less costs to sell, over book value at Dec. 31, 2016 15 million In its income statement for the year ended December 31, 2016, Jamison would report a before-tax loss on discontinued operations of: $50 million. $145 million. $65 million. $130 million.
Business
1 answer:
Zanzabum3 years ago
8 0

Answer: Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

On December 31, 2016

Operating loss Jan. 1–Dec. 31, 2016 = $65 million

Estimated operating losses, Jan. 1 to April 30, 2017 = 80 million

Excess of fair value = 15 million

As the asset is not impaired because it was given that fair value exceeds the book value at 15 million.

Hence, only the operating loss of $65 million from January 1st to December 31, 2016 would be reported into the books of Jamison.

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A truck that cost $36,000 and on which $30,000 of accumulated depreciation has been recorded was disposed of for $5,000 cash. th
Zielflug [23.3K]
Hi there
First find the book value of the truck
Book value=
Cost-accumulated depreciation
36,000−30,000
=6,000

disposed of for $5,000 cash
Book value 6000
So the answer is
Loss of 1000 (5000-6000)

Good luck!
7 0
3 years ago
A 65-year-old retiree wishes to convert the cash value of his insurance policy into an annuity. He can select an annuity that wi
insens350 [35]

Answer:

The annual difference between Option 1 (15 years) and Option 2 (20 years) is $7,211.19 in favor of the first one.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Option 1:

Number of years= 15

FV= 450,000

i= 0.0525

Option 2:

Number of years= 20

FV= 450,000

i= 0.0525

To calculate the annual cash flow, we will use the following formula on each option:

A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}

A= annual cash flow

<u>Option 1:</u>

A= (450,000*0.0525) / [(1.0525^15) - 1]

A= $20,464.72

<u>Option 2:</u>

A= (450,000*0.0525) / [(1.0525^20) - 1]

A= $13,253.53

The annual difference between Option 1 (15 years) and Option 2 (20 years) is $7,211.19 in favor of the first one.

5 0
2 years ago
Feedback given by the job is more effective than formal appraisals from their boss
Ierofanga [76]
The answer to your question is; B. False
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Cully Furniture buys two products for resale: king beds (K) and queen beds (Q). Each king bed costs $500 and requires 100 cubic
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

1) 500K + 250Q ≤ 80,000

  100K+80Q≤ 30,000

K≥0

Q≥0

P= 400K + 200Q

2) zero king beds and 320 queen beds

or zero queen beds and 160 king beds

3) surplus variable

surplus variable is storage space

values of surplus variable is 14,000 cubic feet if zero queen beds and 160 king beds

value of surplus variable is 4,400 cubic feet if zero king beds and 320 queen beds.

surplus is the extra amount available after all resources have been utilized to theri maximum.

4) none of the resources will be completely used. There will be surplus of both

Explanation:

1) Implicit variables: K≥0 ;   Q ≥ 0

Explicit variables:

500K + 250Q ≤ 80,000-------------------------- from investment constraint

  100K+80Q≤ 30,000 ---------------------- from storage space constraint

LP:  P= 400K + 200Q

2) See the attachment for profit maximization graph

3) From graph in the attachment, it can be inferred that storage space is the surplus variable since graph of that equation lies completely outside of optimal area.

Also,

if K=160 and Q=0, the inequality of investment gives

500(160) + 250(0)= 80,000

if K=0 and Q=320, the inequality of investment gives

500(0)+ 250(320) =80,000

if K=0 and Q = 320, the inequality of space gives

100(0) + 80(320)= 25,600

surplus= 30,000- 25,600= 4,400

if K=160 and Q=0, the inequality of space gives

100(160) +250(0)= 16000

surplus= 30000-16000= 14000

4) K=0 and Q=300

investment inequality gives

500(0) + 250(300) ≤ 80,000

75,000≤ 80,000

space inequality gives

100(0) + 80(300) ≤ 30,000

24,000≤ 30,000

Both space and investment are in surplus

6 0
2 years ago
Cash flows of two mutually exclusive projects are as follows. Project A costs $80,000 initially and will have a $15,000 salvage
son4ous [18]

Answer:

C. The present worth of project A is -$143,252.17

Explanation:

Present worth can be calculated using a financial calculator

For method A ,

Cash flow in year 0 = $80,000

Cash flow in year 1 and 2 = $30,000

Cash flow in year 3 = $30,000 - $15,000 = $15,000

I = 10%

Present worth= $ 143,335.84

For method B,

Cash flow in year 0 = $120,000

Cash flow in year 1 and 2 = $8, 000

Cash flow in year 3 = $8,000 - $40,000 = $-32,000

I = 10%

Present worth = $130,157.78

Method b would is chosen because it worth less.

To find the present worth using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

4 0
3 years ago
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