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riadik2000 [5.3K]
3 years ago
10

Company A has a beta of 0.70, while Company B's beta is 1.20. The required return on the stock market is 11.00%, and the risk-fr

ee rate is 4.25%.
What is the difference between A's and B's required rates of return?
(Hint: First find the market risk premium, then find the required returns on the stocks.)

a) 2.75% b) 2.89% c) 3.05% d) 3.21% e) 3.38%
Business
1 answer:
nikdorinn [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

e) 3.38%

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Required rate of return  = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

For A

= 4.25% + 0.70 × (11.00% - 4.25%)

= 4.25% + 0.70 × 6.75%

= 4.25% + 4.725%

= 8.975%

For B

= 4.25% + 1.20 × (11.00% - 4.25%)

= 4.25% + 1.20× 6.75%

= 4.25% + 8.1%

= 12.35%

So, the difference would be

=  12.35% - 8.975%

= 3.375%

The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also known as market risk premium

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As of june 30, 2013, actual tigers company has assets of $100,000 and stockholders' equity of $30,000. what are the liabilities
nignag [31]
'Actual Tigers Company'
Total Assets
$100,000
Stockholder Equity: $30,000

$100,000 - $30,000 = $70,000

$70,000 + $30,000 = $100,000

Total Assets - Equity = $70,000 (total liabilities)
$70,000 + Equity = $100,000 (total assets)

In accounting if we minus the total assets ($100,000) with equity ($30,000) it will always give the "total liabilities" which is (70,000)

Then, adding the "total liabilities" ($70,000) with the equity ($30,000) equals $100,000 equal like as the "total assets"of $100,000

The total assets MUST match the total liabilities. If they don't match then either the calculation of the total assets are inaccurate or the numbers are estimated wrong to recalculate.
8 0
3 years ago
The following standards for variable manufacturing overhead have been established for a company that makes only one product: Sta
Naddik [55]

Answer:

$11.165 unfavorable

Explanation:

The formula to compute the variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:

= (Actual direct labor hours - standard direct labor hours) × variable overhead per hour

where,  

Actual direct labor hours is 2,975

And, the standard direct labor hours equal to

= 250 units × 9

= 2,250

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= (2,975 - 2,250) × $15.40

= $11.165 unfavorable

6 0
3 years ago
In a period of rising prices, the inventory method that produces the lowest ending inventory is the:
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

LIFO Periodic method

Explanation:

The LIFO means Last In First Out this means that item that have been stocked today would be sold first although there’s still some inventory from previous periods.

Using LIFO would result in lower ending inventory because closing inventory would be valued at low price which they had been bought assuming that there’s now a hick in price and goods in the warehouse were stocked when prices were low.

LIFO is used for the manipulation of profit.

8 0
3 years ago
The Caraway Seed Company grows heirloom tomatoes and sells their seeds. The heirloom tomato plants are preferred by many growers
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

A.

$168,000

B.

$21,300

Explanation:

A.

As per accounting equation

Assets = Liabilities + Equity

Equity = Assets - Liabilities

Placing values in the equation

Equity = ( Current assets + Net Fixed Assets ) - ( Current Liabilities + Long term debt )

Equity = ( $49,700 + 248,300 ) - ( 28,400 + 101,600)

Equity = $168,000

B.

Net Working capital is the net of current assets and current liabilities of the company.

Use following formula of net working capital

Net working capital = Current assets - current liabilities

Net working capital = $49,700 - 28,400

Net working capital = $21,300

5 0
3 years ago
Potential investors, in analyzing the profit potential for a distressed property, generally consider a financial framework inclu
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

It is True that potential investors, in analyzing the profit potential for a distressed property, generally consider a financial framework including the acquisition phase, the holding period phase and the disposition phase

Explanation:

Acquisition is the process of gaining ownership or control of a real estate. It is usually sold by brokers to investors.

In the case of distressed property, there is always a holding period

Holding periods are usually targeted at 2-5 years, during which the asset that has been acquired is renovated.

The end of the holding period transitions to the beginning of the disposition phase.

During the disposition phase, the real estate which could be a distressed building is being disposed or handed over to the owners. At this phase, complete documentation is done and handed to both parties to endorse.

A comprehensive financial framework detailing all the expenditure across the acquisition phase, holding period and the disposition phase must be in place in order to get an accurate calculation of expenditure data to used in analyzing the profit potential of a property.

3 0
2 years ago
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