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prisoha [69]
4 years ago
12

The diminishing marginal utility effect states that as more of an item is consumed and the amount of additional satisfaction dec

reases, the seller must ________ price to induce the consumer to buy more.
Business
1 answer:
valentina_108 [34]4 years ago
7 0

Answer: decrease

Explanation: Marginal utility could be explained as the extra satisfaction derived from the consumption of one extra unit of an item. However, as consumption increases, the extra satisfaction (marginal utility) begins to decline. At this point, the demand for such product or item will tend to fall or drop due to the decline in satisfaction. When this happens, reduces the price of such item becomes paramount in other to fight the decline in demand of the product and induce consumers to buy more.

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Assume a machine that has a useful life of only one year costs $2,000. Assume, also, that net of such operating costs as power,
erik [133]

Answer:

purchase the machine because the expected rate of return exceeds the interest rate.

Explanation:

Given the cost of machine = $2000

If the firm borrows fund at an interest rate of 10% to buy the machine,

Interest paid on the cost of machine = 10% of $200

= 10/100 × $2000

= $200

Total amount that must be paid back for the machine by the firm = actual cost of machine + interest rate

= $2000 + $200

= $2,200

Since the additional revenue generated from the machine after all operating cost = $2,300

Profit accrued by the firm = Revenue - (actual cost of machine + interest)

Profit accrued by the firm = $2,300-$2200

Profit accrued by the firm on the machine = $100

Based on the profit margin, it can be concluded that the firm can purchase the machine because the expected rate of return exceeds the interest rate.

Note that the expected rate of return is $300 (i.e $2300 - $2000) and the interest rate of is $200 (i.e 10% of $2000)

5 0
3 years ago
You are given the following information for Lightning Power Co. Assume the company’s tax rate is 24 percent. Debt: 19,000 6.8 pe
diamong [38]

Answer:

Company's WACC is 9.6%

Explanation:

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

Formula for WACC

Weighted Average Cost of Capital = (Cost of Equity x Weightage of equity) + (Cost of preferred Stock x Weightage of preferred Stock ) + (Cost of Debt (1 -t) x Weightage of Debt)

Market Values

Equity = 520,000 x $70 = $36,400,000

Preferred = 23,000 x $91 = $2,093,000

Debt  = $1,110 x 19,000 = $21,090,000

Total Value = $36,400,000 + $2,093,000 + $21,090,000 = $59,583,000

Cost of Equity :

We can calculate cost of equity using CAPM

Capital asset pricing model measure the expected return on an asset or investment. it is used to make decision for addition of specific investment in a well diversified portfolio.

Formula for CAPM

Cost of Equity = Risk free rate + beta ( market return - risk free rate )

Cost of Equity = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Cost of Equity = 5.5% + 1.21 ( 6% )

Cost of Equity = 12.76%

Cost of Preferred stock = 4.6%

We need to calculate the yield to maturity

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

Placing value in the formula

Yield to maturity = [ 34 + ( $1,000 - $1,110 ) / 48 ] / [ ( $1,000 + $1,110 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = 3% semiannually = 6% annually

Placing values in the formula

Weighted Average Cost of Capital = (12.76% x $36,400,000 / $59,583,000 ) + ( 4.6% x $2,093,000 / $59,583,000 ) + (6% (1 - 0.24 ) x $21,090,000 / $59,583,000 )

Weighted Average Cost of Capital = 7.80% + 0.16% + 1.61% = 9.57%

7 0
3 years ago
Cost of Debt KatyDid Clothes has a $150 million (face value) 30-year bond issue selling for 104 percent of par that carries a co
Ivahew [28]

Answer:

the annual pre-tax cost of debt is 10.56%

Explanation:

the beore-tax component cost of debt will be the actual market rate of the bonds, as they offer an interest rate of 11% but are selling at 104 points not at par thus, there is a difference between the rates.

We solve for the rate which makes the coupon and maturity 104

with excel or a financial calculator

PV of the coupon payment

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 5.500 (100 x 11%/2)

time 60 (30 years x 2 payment per year)

rate <em>0.052787474</em>

5.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0527874736258532)^{-60} }{0.0527874736258532} = PV\\

PV $99.4338

PV of the maturity

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   100.00

time   60.00

rate  <em>0.052787474</em>

\frac{100}{(1 + 0.0527874736258532)^{60} } = PV  

PV   4.57

<em><u>Adding both we should get 104 which is the amount the bonds is selling:</u></em>

PV coupon $99.4338 + PV maturity  $4.5662 = $104.0000

The rate is generated using goal seek or wiht a financial calculator.

This rate is a semiannual rate, so we multiply by 2 to get the annual cost of debt:

0.052787474 x 2 = 0.105574947

The cost of debt for the firm is 10.56%

5 0
3 years ago
Jose wanted to make a graph to show his budget for the month. what type of graph would be the most appropriate to graph for jose
Andru [333]
D. Circle (Pie) graph
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A buyer has $20 to spend on rice and beans. Rice costs $2 and beans cost $3 per pound. The buyer is buying the combination of 4
Rainbow [258]

Answer: Buy more of both rice and beans

             

Explanation: Marginal benefit refers to the additional benefit that a customer get by consuming one additional unit of a commodity.

In the given case, the marginal benefit for the customer is positive for both of the goods.  Also if he chooses to but one more unit of anything in place of other than he will not able to use his budget properly.

Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is C.

3 0
3 years ago
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