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lakkis [162]
3 years ago
15

Help I need the answers immediately​

Mathematics
2 answers:
irakobra [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A. Vertical angles

Step-by-step explanation:

Vertical angles are opposite angles made by two intersecting lines. Vertical angles are always congruent. To solve set both expressions equal to each other then solve algebraically. However, solving is unnecessary since the angles do not fit any of the other definitions.

Dvinal [7]3 years ago
7 0
Answer : vertical angles

the angles are vertical from each other on the picture
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Someone please help me with this question
Lyrx [107]

Answer: Neither

Step-by-step explanation:

It is not an angle of the quadrilateral, so it is not an interior angle.

It does not form a linear pair with any interior angle of the quadrilateral, so it is not an exterior angle.

6 0
2 years ago
Sam is playing basketball and his position on a coordinate plane is given as (3,6). He dodges other players by moving 5
Diano4ka-milaya [45]
So to my calculations of copping the other guy it’s -1/-3
3 0
3 years ago
The combined volume of two identical cubes is 250 cubic centimeters. What is the measure of one cubes edge
katen-ka-za [31]
Cubic volume V = a^3
where a - cubic edge


250 = 2*V
V=125
a^3=125
a=\sqrt[3]{125}=5

Answer: Cubes edge is 5cm.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
About 11% of adult Americans are left-handed. Suppose that two people are randomly selected from this
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

a) P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

b) P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.48)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution for the problem

Part a

On this case since we select a sample size of n =2 we have the following values for the number of left handed X=0,1,2. We can find the probabilities for each case since we know that p=0.11.

P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

8 0
3 years ago
A.)Write a mixed number.
nexus9112 [7]
A) 2 1/3
B)1 4/3
is this what you wanted????
4 0
3 years ago
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