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sineoko [7]
4 years ago
10

Choose the option that correctly answers and explains the question, "If the sum of the forces acting on an object equals zero, d

oes this imply the object is at rest?" No, because the sum of the forces equaling zero only implies that the object is not accelerating. No, because even if the sum of the forces equals zero, it may have a nonzero component in one direction. Yes, according to Newton's second law, experiencing zero net force is the definition of being at rest. Yes, because Newton's first law implies that objects in motion must be acted on by a nonzero net force.
Physics
2 answers:
rusak2 [61]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:No it means that the object is at equilibrium

Explanation:

The sum of force acting opposite is equal to zero if forces are equal.

Misha Larkins [42]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

No, because the sum of the forces equaling zero only implies that the object is not accelerating.

Explanation:

When the sum of the forces acting on an object equals zero, this implies that the object is at equilibrium. And this could be either static or dynamic equilibrium.

A force is an agent that could change the state or direction of motion of an object. When the sum of all forces acting on an object equals zero, this implies all forces cancels out by resolution. Thus, the state of equilibrum is achieved. So this those not necessarily mean that the object is at rest, but could be in a dynamic equilibrium.

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A wheel of mass 4kg is pulled up a plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal by a force of 45N applied to the axle and parallel to
Len [333]

Answer:

v = 10 m/s

Explanation:

Let's assume the wheel does not slip as it accelerates.

Energy theory is more straightforward than kinematics in my opinion.

Work done on the wheel

W = Fd = 45(12) = 540 J

Some is converted to potential energy

PE = mgh = 4(9.8)12sin30 = 235.2 J

As there is no friction mentioned, the remainder is kinetic energy

KE = 540 - 235.2 = 304.8 J

KE = ½mv² + ½Iω²

ω = v/R

KE = ½mv² + ½I(v/R)² = ½(m + I/R²)v²

v = √(2KE / (m + I/R²))

v = √(2(304.8) / (4 + 0.5/0.5²)) = √101.6

v = 10.07968...

5 0
3 years ago
Why is powdered or ground up quartz used as an abrasive?
MrRa [10]

Explanation:

The high hardness of quartz, seven on the Mohs Scale, makes it harder than most other natural substances. As such it is an excellent abrasive material. Quartz sands and finely ground silica sand are used for sand blasting, scouring cleansers, grinding media, and grit for sanding and sawing

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
12. Suppose a person uses a mechanical iack to lift half the weight of a car with a
Likurg_2 [28]

a) The force that must be applied is 73.5 N

b) The actual efficiency is 82 %

Explanation:

a)

Since the jack is 100% efficient, all the input work is converted into output work. So we can write:

W_{in} = W_{out}\\F_{in} d_{in} = F_{out} d_{out}

where:

F_{in} is the input force applied on the jack

d_{in} is the arm of the input force

F_{out} is the output force applied on the jack

d_{out} is the arm of the output force

Here we have:

F_{out}=\frac{mg}{2}= \frac{(1200 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)}{2}=5880 N is the output force (half the weight of the car)

d_{in} = 40.0 cm = 0.40 m is the arm of the input force

d_{out} = 5.0 mm = 0.005 m is the arm of the output force

Solving for F_{in}, we find the force that must be applied in input to lift the car:

F_{in} = \frac{F_{out}d_{out}}{d_{in}}=\frac{(5880)(0.005)}{0.40}=73.5 N

b)

The efficiency of the jack is given by the ratio between the output work and the input work:

\eta = \frac{W_{out}}{W_{in}}=\frac{F_{out}d_{out}}{F_{in}d_{in}}

where we have:

F_{out}=5880 N is the output force (half the weight of the car)

d_{in} = 40.0 cm = 0.40 m is the arm of the input force

d_{out} = 5.0 mm = 0.005 m is the arm of the output force

Here we are told that the input force this time is

F_{in}=90.0N

Substituting into the equation, we find the new efficiency of the jack:

\eta = \frac{(5880)(0.005)}{(90.0)(0.40)}=0.82

Which means an efficiency of 82%.

Learn more about levers:

brainly.com/question/5352966

#LearnwithBrainly

8 0
4 years ago
What is a watt equivalent to in terms of kilograms, meters and seco
Ierofanga [76]

1 watt = 1 joule per second

1 joule = 1 newton-meter

1 newton = 1 kg-meter per second²

Put it all together and you have . . .

1 watt = 1 <em>kg-meter² / second³


</em>
5 0
3 years ago
A gas-turbine power plant operating on the simple Brayton cycle has a pressure ratio of 7. Air enters the compressor at 0°C and
Ivahew [28]

Answer:

Answers of the Both parts  are in the following attachment

Explanation:

         

4 0
3 years ago
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