Answer:
SCC won't pay any tax
Explanation:
Their loss of $30,000 in year 1 will be unused and made available to counterbalance the total generated earnings in year 2.
The $20,000 earnings in year 2 can be used to counterbalance the whole taxable income; so, SCC will not pay pay tax. SCC will have a ($10,000) loss carryover available for year 3 and beyond
Answer:
$214,000
Explanation:
Total Revenues ($740,000 + $103,000) =$843,000
−Total Operating costs ($570,000 + $59,000)
=$629,000
= Total operating profit = $214,000
Therefore Assuming that there are no changes to the existing body shop business, operating profits would be expected to increase during 2021 by $214,000
Answer:
Aids to trade communication
<u><em>Aids to trade includes Transport, Communication, Warehousing, Banking, Insurance, Advertising, Salesmanship, Mercantile agents.</em></u>
Trade promotion organizations in a country and Global organizations for international trade. These important auxiliaries ensure a smooth flow of goods from producers to the consumers.
Hope this helpssss :)
Answer:
3.79 years
Explanation:
In the payback, we analyze in how many years the invested amount is recovered. The computation is shown below:
In year 0 = $117,200
In year 1 = $53,000
In year 2 = $21,500
In year 3 = $26,500
In year 4 = $20,500
In year 5 = $23,000
If we sum the first 3 year cash inflows than it would be $101,000
Now we deduct the $101,000 from the $117,200 , so the amount would be $16,200 as if we added the fourth year cash inflow so the total amount exceed to the initial investment. So, we deduct it
And, the next year cash inflow is $20,500
So, the payback period equal to
= 3 years + $16,200 ÷ $20,500
= 3.79 years
In 3.79 years, the invested amount is recovered.
Answer: 17.5%
Explanation:
The equilibrium will occur where the money demanded equals to the money supplied i.e Ms = Md
From the question, the supply of currency by the Central Bank = 40
Money Supply (Ms) = m × B
where m = Money multiplier = 2.5
Note that the money multiplier can also be equal to 1/rr in situations wherebt the consumers do not hold any currency.
rr = reserve ratio, = 0.4
B = monetary base = 40
Note that the monetary base here is 40.
Since reserve ratio = 0.4, therefore
m = 1/0.4 = 2.5
Therefore, Ms = m × B
= 2.5 × 40
= 100
Thus Money supply Ms = 100.
Money demand(Md) = Y(0.3 - i),
Y = income = 800
i = interest rate
Since (Md) = Y(0.3 - i),
Md = 800(0.3 - i)
Equate the equation for the money demand and money supply together.
Ms = Md
100 = 800(0.3 - i)
100 = 240 - 800i
800i = 240 - 100
800i = 140
i = 140/800
i= 0.175
= 17.5%
Therefore, the interest rate is 17.5%
