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loris [4]
3 years ago
14

alculate the difference between the present value of $200 per year cash payments for the next 40 years and the present value of

$200 per year cash payments in perpetuity. Assume in either case, the first payment occurs one year from today and that the appropriate discount rate is 8%/year. The difference in the present value of these two streams of future cash payments that you calculated equals the present value of cash payments over what period of time?
Business
1 answer:
Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Present value of annuity = PV(8%,40,-200,0,0)

Present value of annuity = $2,384.93

Present value of Perpetuity = 200/ 8%

Present value of Perpetuity = 200 / 0.08

Present value of Perpetuity = 2500

The difference between the Present value = $2,500 - $2,384.93 = $115.07

However, both does not equal as time value has to be considered.

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eimsori [14]

The Correct Response is Option B.

Inflation: can obscure relative price changes.

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8 0
1 year ago
A $300,000 bond was redeemed at 98 when the carrying value of the bond was $292,000. the entry to record the redemption would in
Kobotan [32]

Answer:

correct option is a. loss on bond redemption of $2,000

Explanation:

given data

bond = $300,000

redeemed at =  98

carrying value of bond = $292,000

to find out

entry to record the redemption would include

solution

we know here that Redemption value is

Redemption value = bond × redeemed

Redemption value = $300,000 ×98%

Redemption value =$294,000     ................1

and here Carrying value is $292,000

so we paid excess amount that is

paid excess amount = $294,000 - $292,000

paid excess amount = $2000

so here correct option is a. loss on bond redemption of $2,000

6 0
3 years ago
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grandymaker [24]

Answer:

a. the portion of its marginal cost curve that lies above the AVC

Explanation:

In short run, a perfectly competitive produces as long as its price is above its AVC, so revenues can cover total variable cost. If price is below AVC, the firm has to shut down. Since such a firm maximizes profit by equating Price with MC, this condition means that firm's supply curve is its MC curve lying above the (minimum point of) AVC curve.

6 0
3 years ago
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Bad White [126]

Answer:

frequently

Explanation:

I think its frequently

3 0
3 years ago
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Amanda [17]
Once every 10 years search it up if I am wrong
5 0
3 years ago
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