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Vadim26 [7]
3 years ago
12

Assume that Simple Co. had credit sales of $258,000 and cost of goods sold of $158,000 for the period. Simple uses the aging met

hod and estimates that the appropriate ending balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $3,800. Before the end-of-period adjustment is made, the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $330. What amount of Bad Debt Expense would the company record as an end-of-period adjustment?
Business
1 answer:
Sphinxa [80]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: The amount of bad debt expense the company would record would be $3,470.

Explanation: Bad debt expense is an estimate of accounts receivable that is deemed as uncollectible while allowance for doubtful accounts is a balance sheet allowance account that warehouses the total balance of accounts receivable that is deemed irrecoverable.

In this scenario, Simple Co. estimated, using the aging method, that the allowance for doubtful accounts is $3,800. However, it had a credit balance of $330 in the same account. The reinstate the allowance account to $3,800, $3,470 has to be adjusted for by debiting bad debt expense and crediting allowance for doubtful account.

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rusak2 [61]

Answer:

Gillette in India

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Explanation:

Since Indian men have longer and thicker hair than the local consumers of Gillette's razor products in America, an earlier research would have uncovered the fact.  Thereafter, the discovery would have been incorporated into the design and production of Vector for the Indian market. No wonder, with its Mach 3 Turbo razor, Gillette overcame its initial inertia and handicap and made a success of the razor business in India.

5 0
3 years ago
If a tax is imposed on a market with inelastic demand and elastic supply, then:
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Buyers will bear most of the burden of the tax

Explanation:

Hope it helps

6 0
3 years ago
Markley Manufacturing calculated its predetermined overhead rate to be 120% of direct labor cost. During June, the company incur
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

Applied Manufacturing Overheads are $102,000

Overapplied Manufacturing overheads are $18,000

Explanation:

Under or over applied manufacturing overhead can be determined by comparing the actual and applied manufacturing overheads.

Applied overheads can be calculated by multiplying pre-determined overhead rate and actual level of quantity. Predetermined overhead rate is calculated using estimated overhead and estimated activity on which overheads are applied.

In this question the predetermined overhead rate is 120% of direct labor cost.

Applied overhead = Direct labor cost x 120% = $85,000 x 120% = $102,000

Actual overheads incurred = $84,000

Overapplied Manufacturing overheads = $102,000 - $84,000 = $18,000

3 0
3 years ago
The markdown could be a dollar amount or a
BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

Percentage of the selling price

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Markdown can be given in dollar amount. The seller indicates the amount of money that has been knocked off the price. Markdown can also be expressed as a percentage of the regular selling price. In such a case, the new price after the markdown has to be calculated.

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3 years ago
For banks and other financial​ institutions, the discrepancy between the​ short-term maturities of their deposits and the​ long-
Naddik [55]

Answe and Explanation:

For banks and other financial​ institutions, the discrepancy between the​ short-term maturities of their deposits and the​ long-term maturities of their assets is referred to as​ _a maturity mismatch___________.

8 0
3 years ago
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