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astraxan [27]
3 years ago
12

Performance appraisals generally fulfill two functions. The first is to identify individual strengths and weaknesses and to deve

lop action plans for improving performance. The second involves salary or merit adjustments. Why should these two functions be addressed at different times
Business
1 answer:
Iteru [2.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D. If the employees are upset over their salary adjustment, they may not be open to listening to ways they can improve.

Explanation:

Performance appraisals are measures developed by the human resource department in organizations, to evaluate the employees' performance and to suggest ways for them to improve. Rewards are typically given to high-performing employees, usually by way of salary increment or assignment of privileges. Low-performing employees might experience a salary cut or the withdrawal of some privileges.

When these activities are performed at the same time, employees who were rated as not performing well might be brooding over their perceived loss of merits or decrease in salary. Since they are not in the right frame of mind, they might be unwilling to, or not receptive enough to accept action plans for improving performance. So, it is advisable that these two functions are performed at different times.  

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Assume the following: The standard price per pound is $2.00. The standard quantity of pounds allowed per unit of finished goods
adell [148]

Answer:

Direct material price variance= $12,500 unfavorable

Explanation:

Giving the following formula:

The standard price per pound is $2.00.

The actual quantity of materials purchased and used in production is 50,000 pounds.

The actual purchase price per pound of materials was $2.25.

<u>To calculate the direct material price (spending) variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Direct material price variance= (standard price - actual price)*actual quantity

Direct material price variance= (2 - 2.25)*50,000

Direct material price variance= $12,500 unfavorable

6 0
3 years ago
Westford Corporation has $185 million dollars of interest-bearing debt outstanding at the end of fiscal 2014 year. In addition,
Ratling [72]

Answer:

B) 9.1%

Explanation:

Cost of debt is the interest rate paid by a company due to borrowing money; i.e  debt from investors.

$185million in debt is the face value of debt that Westford Corporation had and the $26 million dollars of interest expense is the cost of the debt in dollars;

First, find pretax cost of debt ;

Pretax cost of debt = (Interest expense / Face value of debt )*100

= (26,000,000/ 185,000,000 )*100

=0.1405 *100

= 14.05%

Next, use pretax cost of debt to find after-tax cost of debt;

After-tax cost of debt = Pretax cost of debt (1-tax)

= 14.05% *(1-0.35)

= 9.13%

Therefore, Westford's cost of debt capital is 9.1%

6 0
3 years ago
Use the following method to calculate the yearly depreciation allowances and book values for a firm that has purchased $150,000
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

a. Straight Line Method Depreciation= $ 2400

b. MACRS

c. Sum-of-Years' Digits

Explanation:

a. Straight Line Method Depreciation=

Purchase Cost- Salvage Value/ No of useful life *depreciation rate

=$ 150,000- $30,000/10 * 20%

=120,000/10* 20%= 12000* 20/100=$ 2400

b. MACRS

Since it is a non-form 10-year property, the company can elect to use either the 150% or 200% declining balance method.

Depreciation in 1st Year = Cost × 1/Useful Life × A × Depreciation Convention

Depreciation in Subsequent Years =

(Cost − Depreciation in Previous Years) × 1/ Recovery Period × A

Where,

A is 100% or 150% or 200%.

Depreciation for the the first year $ 150,000/10 *200%= $30,000

Depreciation for the the 2nd year =$ 150,000-30,000/10 *200%= $24,000

Depreciation for the the third year =$ 150,000-30,000- 24000/10 *200%

=$ 19,200

Depreciation for the the 4th year $ 150,000-30,000-24000-19200/10 *200%=  Note A

Note A: MACRS declining balance changes to straight-line method when that method provides an equal or greater deduction. Deduction under 200% declining balance MACRS for 4th year  would be $ 153,600 ($150000 - $30,000 - $24000 - $19200  × 1/10 × 200%. This is greater than depreciation under straight line method .

c. Sum-of-Years' Digits Method Depreciation

Depreciation Amount = Acquisition Cost - Salvage Value = $ 120,000

Sum of useful life= 10+9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1= 55

Depreciation Factor = 10/55, 9/55, 8/55, 7/55 etc.

Depreciation for the 1st year= 10/55* 120,000= $ 21,818.2

Depreciation for the 2nd year= 9/55* 120,000= $ 19 636.4

Depreciation for the 3rd year= 8/55* 120,000=  $17,546

Depreciation for the 4th year= 7/55* 120,000=  $ 15,273

Depreciation for the 5th year= 6/55* 120,000= $ 13,091

Depreciation for the 6th year= 5/55* 120,000= $ 10,909.1

Depreciation for the 7th year= 4/55* 120,000= $ 8727.3

Depreciation for the 8th year= 3/55* 120,000=  $ 6545.5

Depreciation for the 9th year= 2/55* 120,000=  $4363.63

Depreciation for the 10th year= 1/55* 120,000= $ 2181.81

3 0
3 years ago
While _______ decisions will generally need to be processed via the ______ system in our brains in order for us to reach a good
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

Nonprogrammed; reflective; programmed; reactive

Explanation:

Programmed decisions can be regarded as decision which involves well understood criteria when making it,. nonprogrammed decisions on the other hand can be explained as decisions which are novel, they are decision that does not have clear guidelines when trying to reach solution. rules as well as guidelines can be set up for programmed decisions by Managers when known fact is available because this will enhance in reaching

decisions quickly. It should be noted that While non programmed decisions will generally need to be processed via the reflective system in our brains in order for us to reach a good decision, with programmed decisions, heuristics can allow decision-makers to switch to the quick, reactive system.

5 0
3 years ago
Gonzales Corporation generated free cash flow of $88 million this year. For the next two years,the companyʹs free cash flow is e
vodka [1.7K]

Answer:

A) $1384.24

Explanation:

Terminal Value = Free Cash Flow (FCF) of last forecast *(1+ perpetual growth rate)/(discount rate – perpetual growth rate)

FCF of last forecast = $88*(1+10%)^2 = $106.48

Gonzales Corporationʹs expected terminal enterprise value in year 2 = $106.48 * (1+4%)/(12%-4%) = $1382.24

6 0
3 years ago
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