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ale4655 [162]
3 years ago
15

Pr 12-2b bond discount, entries for bonds payable transactions

Business
1 answer:
BARSIC [14]3 years ago
4 0
<span>1. journalize the entry to record the amount of cash proceeds from the issuance of the bonds on july 1, 2016.

Cash                                                     42,309,236
Discount on bonds payable             3,690,764
                           Bonds payable                                           46,000,000

</span><span>2. journalize the entries to record the following: 
a. the first semiannual interest payment on december 31, 2016, and the amortization of the bond discount, using the straight-line method. (round to the nearest dollar. 

Interest Expense                2,327,007.98
                      Discount on Bonds Payable              92,269.10
                      Cash                                                    2,234,738.88

b. the interest payment on june 30, 2017, and the amortization of the bond discount, using the straight-line method. (round to the nearest dollar. 

</span>nterest Expense                2,327,007.98
                      Discount on Bonds Payable              92,269.10
<span>                      Cash                                                    2,234,738.88
</span><span>
3. </span><span>determine the total interest expense for 2016. 
</span>42,309,236 x 11% = 4,654,015.96 annual interest expense
4,654,015.96 x 6/12 = 2,327,007.98 semi annual expense
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Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
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Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

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Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

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Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

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