Answer:
Correct answer is D.
$4375
Explanation:
Amortization of actuarial gain or losses = Net actuarial gain/remaining service life
= 87500/20
Amortization of actuarial gain = $4375
Answer:
Vertical distance
y-axis
Horizontal distance
x-axis
where n are integers
Explanation:
The relationship between x-axis and y-axis is determined by cosine function. The sine and cosine functions have a domain of all real numbers. These distances are determined by the vertical distance ratio.
If the country can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost, it has a comparative advantage.
<h3>
What is comparative advantage?</h3>
- In an economic model, agents have a comparative advantage over others if they can produce that good at a lower relative opportunity cost or autarky price, i.e. at a lower relative marginal cost prior to the trade.
- Comparative advantage describes the economic reality of trade advantages for people, firms, or nations as a result of disparities in their factor endowments or technological progress.
- (The absolute advantage, comparing output per time (labor efficiency) or per quantity of raw material (monetary efficiency), is typically considered more intuitive but less accurate – productive trade is possible as long as the opportunity costs of manufacturing commodities vary between countries.)
Therefore, if the country can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost, it has a comparative advantage.
Know more about comparative advantage here:
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Answer:
=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.
=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.
Explanation:
So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.
The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;
The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.
Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.
= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.
Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .
Answer: are factors that have negative influence
Explanation: