A random variable following a binomial distribution over trials with success probability has PMF
Because it's a proper probability distribution, you know that the sum of all the probabilities over the distribution's support must be 1, i.e.
The mean is given by the expected value of the distribution,
The remaining sum has a summand which is the PMF of yet another binomial distribution with trials and the same success probability, so the sum is 1 and you're left with
You can similarly derive the variance by computing , but I'll leave that as an exercise for you. You would find that , so the variance here would be
The standard deviation is just the square root of the variance, which is
There are 1130 females. There are 1370 males. What I did was take 2500 and subtracted 240 from it. I got 2260 and then divided that number by 2 and got the number of females. Then I took that number and added 240 to it and got the number of males.