India and China claim few slaves with a lion's share of their populace as the low class that did likewise fill in as the slaves. The Indians and Chinese were not noticeable in bondage as the Greco-Romans since they had their kin taking the necessary steps that the slaves did. The Chinese and Indians one might say had slaves it was quite recently that the slave was called something different and held a higher economic wellbeing than simple slaves.
Answer:
Debatable, but the answer you're likely looking for is Karl Marx and Fredrich Engel's 1848 document on political theory, the <em>Manifesto of the Communist Party. </em>
Explanation:
Now known as <em>The Communist Manifesto, </em>the document contains Marx and Engel's analysis of communism and the class-struggle. Within, Marx writes, "The supremacy of the proletariat will cause them to vanish still faster. United action, of the leading civilized countries at least, is one of the first conditions for the emancipation of the proletariat." While the term "world revolution" isn't explicitly used, the passage eludes to it's underlying concepts.
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The Articles of Confederation was our first plan of government after the Revolutionary War. One success this plan of government had was in how it dealt with the organization and the sale of western lands.
<span>For all men being originally equals, no one by birth could have a right to set up his own family in perpetual preference to all others for ever, and tho' himself might deserve some decent degree of honors of his contemporaries, yet his descendants might be far too unworthy to inherit them.' Basically, descendants have the right to raise their own family as they see fit.</span>
