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3 years ago

-8=-16+n what is the answer?

Mathematics

2 answers:

SpyIntel [72]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First add -16 to -8.

your equation then is n=8.

You get your answer.

stiv31 [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer: <em>n=8</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

-8 = -16 + n

+16 +16

------------------

8 = n

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4.05E+9 In scientific notation ?

yulyashka [42]

Hewooo

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8 0

3 years ago

Of all the weld failures in a certain assembly, 85% of them occur in the weld metal itself, and the remaining 15% occur in the b

Aloiza [94]

Answer:

a.) 0.1028

b.) 0.6477

c.) 0.0388

d.) 3

e.) 2.55

Step-by-step explanation:

Forming a binomial Probability distribution

n = 20

Probability of success for Weld metal failure = 85%

Probability of success for base metal failure = 15%

We use the probabilit distribution formula of combination to solve the problem.

P(x=r) = nCr * p^r * q^n-r

a.) if exactly 5 are base metal failures, then p = 15 and our solution becomes:

P(x=5) = 20C5 * 0.15^5 * 0.85^15

P(x=5) = 0.1028

b.) probability that fewer than 4 are base metal failure= P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) + P(x=3)

P(x=0) = 20C0 * 0.15^0 * 0.85^20 = 0.0388

P(x=1) = 20C1 * 0.15¹ * 0.85^19 = 0.1368

P(x=2) = 20C2 * 0.15² * 0.85^18 = 0.2293

P(x=3) = 20C3 * 0.15³ * 0.85^17 = 0.2428

Probability that fewer than 4 are base metal failures becomes: 0.038 + 0.1368 + 0.2293 + 0.2428 = 0.6477

c.) probability that none of them are results of base metal failure = P(x=0). As earlier calculated,

P(x=0) = 0.0388

d.) mean of base metal failures = np = 20*0.15 = 3

e.) standard deviation of base metal failures = √np(1-p)

=3 * (1 - 0.15) = 3 * 0.85

= 2.55

4 0

3 years ago

Find the midpoint of PQ<br><br> P(4 1/3, 3 1/6), Q(-2 1/5, 3 2/3)

Paha777 [63]

Answer:

$(1\frac{1}{15},3\frac{5}{12})$

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the midpoint, you must average the x's then average the y's.

So the x's are $4 \frac{1}{3}$ and $-2\frac{1}{5}$ .

The y's are $3\frac{1}{6}$ and $3\frac{2}{3}$ .

To find an average of a data with 2 elements you must add the two elements then take that sum and divide it by 2.

So this is what we will do with the x's then the y's.

So first x:

$\frac{4\frac{1}{3}+-2\frac{1}{5}}{2}$

Write as improper fractions:

$\frac{\frac{13}{3}+\frac{-11}{5}}{2}$

Division by 2 is the same as multiplying by 1/2:

$\frac{13}{6}+\frac{-11}{10}$

The least common multiple of 6 and 10 is 30. We will multiply first fraction by 5/5 and 3/3 for the second so we can have the same denominator.

$\frac{65}{30}+\frac{-33}{30}$

Now that the bottoms are the same we can write as one fraction:

$\frac{65+-33}{30}$

Simplify:

$\frac{32}{30}$

If you want the answer as a mix fraction like your question began as we can do that by first figuring out how many 30's are in 32 and what is the remainder of that division.

There is one 30 and 32 and so 32-30=2 is the remainder.

$1\frac{2}{30}$

Reduce by dividing top and bottom by 2:

$1\frac{1}{15}$

Now for y:

$\frac{3\frac{1}{6}+3\frac{2}{3}}{2}$

Write the mix fractions as improper fractions:

$\frac{\frac{19}{6}+\frac{11}{3}}{2}$

Dividing by 2 is the same as multiplying by 1/2:

$\frac{19}{12}+\frac{11}{6}$

The least common multiple of 12 and 6 is 12 so I'm going to multiply the second fraction by 2/2 so the denominators will be the same:

$\frac{19}{12}+\frac{22}{12}$

Since the denominators are the same we can write as a single fraction:

$\frac{41}{12}$

How many 12's are in 41? 3 and so the remainder is 41-3(12)=41-36=5.

$3\frac{5}{12}$

So the midpoint is:

$(1\frac{1}{15},3\frac{5}{12})$ .

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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