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densk [106]
4 years ago
8

Historically, common crimes (such as robbing a bank) were punished more severely than white collar crimes (like embezzlement). W

hy do you think that is? Since 2003, there has been a steady push to punish white collar crimes at least as severely as common crimes are punished. Do you feel that this is in the best interest of society? Should white collar crimes be punished more severely, less severely, or the same as comparable common crimes?
Business
1 answer:
Gelneren [198K]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

They must be severely punished.

Explanation:

Common crimes earlier were more threat full to the society than any other act and that is the reason they were mentioned more.

Since, the new era has new crimes, and one of the kind is white collar crimes which happens when companies’ heads try to misguide people with false financial reports, adding more losses to avoid taxes and sometimes showing more profit to attract potential investors, now it has become even severe.

Whichever the case, both crimes ultimately effect society and its stakeholders, however, common crimes are more frequent than white collar crimes.

Hence, they must be severely punished because they are committing crimes under the disguise of an innocent professionals.

You might be interested in
In what way does the article describe the two-party system as a positive system when compared with a multiparty system?
Taya2010 [7]
The two-party system is a profoundly established component of the American government. In most two-party races, the challenge is between two hopefuls of two noteworthy political parties.Nevertheless, both the two-party and multi-party frameworks have their favorable circumstances and impediments.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume the mplt = 5 tennis rackets and mplb = 4 baseball bats. if the economy has 100 workers, then the economy can produce?
Citrus2011 [14]

If the economy has 100 workers, then the economy can produce a maximum of 500 tennis rackets.

Given, MPLT = 5 tennis rackets

MPLB = 4 baseball bats Number of workers =100

So, if the economy has 100 workers, then, 5 × 100 = 500

Hence, the economy can produce 500 tennis rackets.

There are two main sources of growth of the economy. First is the growth in the size of the workforce and second, growth in the productivity of that workforce.

Hence, either can increase the overall size of the economy but only strong productivity growth can increase per capita GDP and income.

To learn more about economy here:

brainly.com/question/18461883

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
The accounting manager of Gateway Inns has noted that every time the inn's average occupancy rate increases by 3.3 percent, the
Archy [21]

Answer: 26.15

Explanation: The degree of operating leverage is calculated as the percentage change in operating income in relation to a percentage change in sales.

Thus the degree of operating leverage of Gateway inn is calculated thus:

DOL = Cont Margin/Operating income

DOL = 47/(4.6-3.3)

DOL = 47/1.3

DOL= 26.15

8 0
4 years ago
Currently, Forever Flowers Inc. has a capital structure consisting of 20% debt and 80% equity. Forever's debt currently has an 7
Allisa [31]

Answer:

WACC = 11.6%

Explanation:

<em>The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is the average cost of all the various sources of long-term finance used by a business weighted according to the proportion which each source of finance bears to the the entire pool of fund. </em>

To calculate the weighted average cost of capital, follow the steps below:  

<em>Step 1: Calculate cost of individual source of finance </em>

Cost of Equity= 13.5%  

After-tax cost of debt:

= (1- T) × before-tax cost of debt  

= 7%× (1-0.4)= 4.2%  

<em>Step 2 : calculate the proportion or weight of the individual source of finance . (This already given) </em>

Equity = 80%  

Debt= 20%

<em>Step 3:Work out weighted average cost of capital (WACC) </em>

WACC = ( 13.5%× 80%) + ( 4.2%× 20%) = 11.64%  

WACC = 11.6%  

4 0
3 years ago
We observe the following annualized yields on four Treasury securities: (75%)
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

From the given information;

The spot rate for maturity at 0.5  year (X_1) = 4\%/2 = 2\%

The spot rate for maturity at 1 year is:

= \dfrac{22.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000

= \dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000

= \dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1022.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000

By solving for X_2;

X_2 = 2.253%

The spot rate for maturity at 1.5 years is:

= \dfrac{25}{(1+X_1)}+  \dfrac{25}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{1000 + 25}{(1+X_3)^3}=1000

Solving for X_3

X_3 = 2.510%

The spot rate for maturity at 2 years is:

= \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_1)}+  \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_3)^3} +\dfrac{1000+27.5}{(1+X_4)^4}  =1000

By solving for X_4;

X_4 = 2.770%

Recall that:

Coupon rate = yield to maturity for par bond.

Thus, the annual coupon rates are 4%, 4.5%, 5%, and 5.5% for 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2 years respectively.

2.

For n years, the price of n-bond is:

= \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 1}{1+X_1}+  \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 2}{(1+X_2)^2}+... +  \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ b}{(1+X_n)^n}

Thus, for 2 years bond implies 4 periods;

∴

= \dfrac{40}{1+0.02}+  \dfrac{40}{(1+0.02253)^2} +  \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0252)^3}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0277)^4}

= $1047.024

3.

Suppose there exist no-arbitrage, then the price is:

= \dfrac{0}{(1+0.02)}+\dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02253)^2}

= 956.4183

Since the market price < arbitrage price.

We then consider 0.5, 1-year bonds from the portfolio

Now;

weight 2 × 1000 + weight 2 × 22.5 = 1000

weight 2 × 1022.5 = 1000

weight 2 = 1022.5/1000

weight 2 = 0.976

weight 1 + weight 2 = 1

weight 1 = 1 - weight 2

weight 1 = 1 - 0.976

weight 1 =  0.022

The price of a 0.5-year bond will be:

= \dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02\%)} \\ \\ =\mathbf{980.39}

The price of a 1-year bond will be = 1000

Market value on the bond portfolio = 0.022 × price of 0.5 bond + 0.978 × price 1-year bond = 956.42

= 0.022 × 980.39 + 0.978 ×  1000

= 956.42

So, to have arbitrage profit, the investor needs to purchase 1 unit of the 1-year zero-coupon bond as well as 0.022 units of the 0.5-year bond. Then sell 0.978 unit of the 1-year bond.

Then will he be able to have an arbitrage profit of $56.42

4.

The one-period ahead forward rates can be computed as follows:

Foward rate from 0 to 0.5 X_1 = 2%

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1

(1+X_2)^2 = (1+X_1) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )

(1+0.0225)^2 = (1+0.02) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1 = 2.5%

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5

(1+X_3)^3 = (1+X_2)^2 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )

(1+0.0251)^3 = (1+0.0225)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5 =3.021%

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2

(1+X_4)^4 = (1+X_3)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )

(1+0.0277)^4 = (1+0.0251)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2 =3.021%

5.

The expected price of the bond if the hypothesis hold :

= \dfrac{40}{1+ 0.03021}+ \dfrac{1000+40}{(1+0.03285)^2}

= \dfrac{40}{(1.03021)}+ \dfrac{1040}{(1.03285)^2}}

= 1013.724254

= 1013.72

4 0
3 years ago
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