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dangina [55]
2 years ago
13

The following function represents the value of a house after x years: f(x) = 242,000(0.96)x What does 0.96 represent?

Mathematics
1 answer:
9966 [12]2 years ago
5 0

Because the 0.96 is less than 1, it means that the house loses value over the years.

Convert 0.96 to a percent: 0.96 = 96%

100% - 96% = 4%

The house loses 4% of it's value every year.

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A bookmark has an area of 14 square centimeters and a perimeter of 18 centimeters. What are the dimensions of the bookmark?
Naily [24]

Answer:

2 x 7

Step-by-step explanation:

a * b = 14

2a + 2b = 18

(a * b)/b  = 14/b Dividing both sides by b

a = 14/b

Substitute a in the perimeter equation

2(14/b) + 2b = 18

28/b + 2b = 18

2b - 18 + 28/b = 0

Multiply both sides by b

2b^2 - 18b + 28 = 0

Divide both sides by two

b^2 - 9b + 14 = 0

The Factors of 14 include -2 and -7 which add up to -9

(b - 2) * (b - 7) = 0

This has two answers because b can be either the side that is 2 long or 7 long, so there's no need to go back and solve for a.

2 x 7

4 0
3 years ago
So, I'm NOT a beginner on brainly. And i havent been able to chat with ANYONE I'm friends with. Including one of my friends that
Sauron [17]

Answer:

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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Given (x – 7)2 = 36, select the values of x.
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

a and b

Step-by-step explanation:

13

1

3 0
3 years ago
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A certain brand of dinnerware set comes in three colors: red, white, and blue. Twenty percent of customers order the red set, 45
denis23 [38]

Answer:

a) 0.20

b) 0.45

c) 0.65

d) Yes

e) Yes

f) Z = X + Y (except when X = 1 and Y = 1)

This is because the successes of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't. X and Y cannot both be 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of a red set = 20% = 0.20

Probability of a white set = 45% = 0.45

Probability of a blue set = 35% = 0.35

Probability of the single set being a red or white set = 20% + 45% = 65% = 0.65

P(X=1) = 0.20, P(X=0) = 1 - 0.2 = 0.80

P(Y=1) = 0.45, P(Y=0) = 1 - 0.45 = 0.55

P(Z=1) = 0.65, P(Z=0) = 1 - 0.65 = 0.35

a) pX = P(X=1) = 0.20

b) pY = P(Y=1) = 0.45

c) pZ = P(Z=1) = 0.65

d) Since only one order is being considered at a time, it isn't possible to order red & white set in a single set, hence, both X and Y cannot both be successes (equal to 1) at the same time. But they can both be failures (both equal to 0) if a blue set is ordered. The successes of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't

e) Is pZ = pX + pY

pX = 0.2, pY = 0.45, pZ = 0.65

Hence, this statement is correct!

f) Z = X + Y

Let's check all the probabilities

when X = 1 and Y = 1, Z = 1

1 ≠ 1 + 1

when X = 0 and Y = 1, Z = 1

1 = 0 + 1

when X = 1 and Y = 0, Z = 1

1 = 1 + 0

when X = 0 and Y = 0, Z = 0

0 = 0 + 0

Hence, Z = X + Y (except when X = 1 and Y = 1)

This is because the success of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't.

8 0
3 years ago
Please help me get the answer and understand it.
oee [108]

Answer:

I believe d

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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