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I am Lyosha [343]
4 years ago
10

Ryan is broke again. Payday is five days away, and his check for the payment on his new car will reach the bank tomorrow. That c

ar is his pride and joy. It’s a big part of his image. Once a month he slips away from work early, drives to a nearby military base, makes sure he doesn’t see anyone he knows, and goes to a payday loan place to get some cash. Every month he gets a bit further behind. He’s desperate enough to take some good advice, and he has turned to you. What will you tell him?
Business
1 answer:
zhuklara [117]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

I would advice Ryan to escape the vicious cycle of interest and debt that he is stuck in. The reason for this is clearly his car and he needs to make a tough decision which is to sell it to somebody and recover the amount he has paid for it. He can use this money to pay off his loans after which he should save the money for a car and buy it in one go instead of financing it. He should also learn to learn to live in the means available to him and should not be tempted to buy things he can't afford.

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Suppose a project is subject to the following risk events (each with a given probability of occurring and a cost associated with
gulaghasi [49]

Answer :

Correct answer is Option (e)

Explanation :

As per the data given in the question,

Option (e) is the correct answer, which indicates that Event 2nd should probably get the most attention and Event 3rd should probably get the least.

The reason behind it is Event 2nd has the highest probability of occurrence at 0.6 and cost associated with it is also the greatest at $54,000. Event 3rd has the least probability of occurrence at 0.1 and the cost associated with its occurrence is also the smallest at $12,000.Therefore this Event should be given least importance.

5 0
3 years ago
West Corp. issued 14-year bonds 2 years ago at a coupon rate of 9.8 percent. The bonds make semiannual payments. If these bonds
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

the YTM is 9.38 %.

Explanation:

Bond Prices in most countries is expressed per $100. We shall use this as the Price for the bond in question.

Then the Yield to Maturity (YTM), r of the Bond can be determined as follows

Pv = - $103

pmt = ($100 × 9.80) ÷ 2 = $4.90

p/yr = 2

n = (14 - 2) × 2 = 24

Fv = $100

r = ?

Using a Financial Calculator,  the Yield to Maturity (YTM), r is 9.38 %

3 0
3 years ago
Using the aging method of accounts receivable method, $5,000 of the company's Accounts Receivable are estimated to be uncollecti
gogolik [260]

Answer:

The correct answer is $4,500.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Uncollectible Account receivable = $5,000

Account receivable balance = $100,000

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts = $500

Credit sales = $150,000

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense by using following formula:

Bad debt expense = Uncollectible Account receivable - Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

by putting the value, we get

Bad debt expense = $5,000 - $500

= $4,500.

6 0
3 years ago
The Harleysville Manufacturing Shop produces motorcycle parts. Typically, 10 pieces out of a job lot of 1,000 parts are spoiled.
Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

B

Materials Control $ 250

Manufacturing Overhead Control $1,000

              Work-in-Process Control $1,250

Explanation:

spoilage rate: 10/1000 = 0.01=1%

the job requires 2,500 goods parts

total part required (considering spoilage)

\frac{requirement}{1-spolage} =$total needs

2,500 /(1-0.01) = 2500/ 0.99 = 2525.2525 = 2525

2525-2500 = 25 spoilage part

<u>Note:</u>

in this case you may think you can simple do 2,500 x 0.01

But if the spoilage rate is high or the amount of high is, then you will have an answer different than the correct method. Stick to the formula given.

25 part x 50 = 1,250

From the work in process, we will subtract this value, we will increase the spoilage materials inventory and charge the diference as actual overhead.

b.

Materials Control $ 250

Manufacturing Overhead Control $1,000

              Work-in-Process Control $1,250

4 0
4 years ago
Common stock valuelong dash—Variable growth Personal Finance Problem
xenn [34]

Answer:

$24.18

Explanation:

Dividend for year 0 = $2.2

Dividend at year end 1 = $2.2

Dividend at year end 2 = $2.2(1 + .05) = 2.31

Dividend at year end 3 = $2.31 (1 + .05) = 2.4255

Dividend at year end 4 = $2.4255 (1 + .17)= 2.8378

Dividend at year end 5 = $2.8375 (1 + .09)= 3.0932

Dividend at year end 6 = $3.0932 (1 + .09) = 3.371

MPS = \frac{D_{1} }{(1\ +\ k)^{1} }  + \frac{D_{2} }{(1\ +\ k)^{2} } \ +\ \frac{D_{3} }{(1\ +\ k)^{3} } \ +\ \frac{D_{4} }{(1\ +\ k)^{4} }  +\ \frac{D_{5} }{(1\ +\ k)^{5} } \ + \frac{1}{(1\ +\ k)^{5} }  [\frac{D_{6} }{(k\ -\ g)\ ]}

where MPS = Market price of share

          D= Dividend for different years

          k = Cost of equity

          g= constant growth rate after year 5

putting values in above equation we get,

MPS = 1.864 + 1.65 + 1.478 + 1.463 + 1.352 + 0.4371 × 37.462

MPS = $24.18

The maximum price per share that an investor who requires a return of 18% should pay for Home Place Hotels common stock is <u>$24.18</u>

4 0
3 years ago
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