Answer:
USING 0% DISCOUNT RATE
PROJECT E
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (23,000) 1 (23,000)
1 5,000 1 5,000
2 6000 1 6,000
3 7000 1 7,000
4 10,000 1 10,000
NPV 5,000
PROJECT H
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (25,000) 1 (23,000)
1 16,000 1 16,000
2 5,000 1 5,000
3 4,000 1 4,000
NPV 2,000
Project A should be accepted
USING 9% DISCOUNT RATE
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (23,000) 1 (23,000)
1 5,000 0.9174 4,587
2 6000 0.8462 5,077
3 7000 0.7722 5,405
4 10,000 0.7084 7,084
NPV (847)
PROJECT H
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (25,000) 1 (23,000)
1 16,000 0.9714 15,542
2 5,000 0.8462 4,231
3 4,000 0.7722 3,089
NPV (138)
None of the projects should be accepted because they have negative NPV
Explanation:
The question requires the computation of NPV using 0% and 9%.
The cashflows of the two projects will be discounted at 0% and 9%.
The discount factors for each project can be calculated using the formula (1+r)-n. The cashflows of the projects will be multiplied by the discount factors to obtain the present values. NPV is the difference between present values of cash inflows and initial outlay.
Let:
x = amount in the account invested in 2.5%
20000 - x = amount in the account invested in 3%
Solution:
.025x + .03 (20000 - x) = 540
.025x + 600 - .03x = 540
-.005x + 600 = 540
-.005x = 540 - 600
-.005x = -60
x = 12000
Therefore, that person invests 12,000 at 2.5%
and
20,000 - 12,000 = 8,000 at 3%
Answer:
1 Line item description Cost Retail
2 Beginning inventory 40000 360000
3 Purchases 1000000 10000000
4 Transportation in 50000
5 Purchase returns -20000 -196000
6 Net purchases(3+4+5) 1030000 9804000
7 Net additional markups 800000
8 Cost to retail ratio 1070000 10964000
component(2+6+7)
9 Net markdowns -500000
10 Sales -9800000
11 Ending inventory,retail(8+9+10) 664000
Setup calculation:
Cost to retail ratio = Cost to retail ratio component at cost/Cost to retail ratio component at retail
= 1070000/10964000
= 0.097592
= 9.76%
Ending inventory,cost = Ending inventory,retail*Cost to retail ratio
= 664000*9.76%
= $64806
Cost of goods sold = Sales*Cost to retail ratio
= 9800000*9.76%
= $956480
Answer:
Time value of money
Explanation:
The reason is that the money invested today worth more tomorrow. If we have option to pay our supplier $5m after a year is more suitable option than paying him today. The reason is that the amount paid today will be worth $5m but if we pay our supplier after a year then in real terms we have paid the supplier less because money lost its worth by certain percentage during the year. So paying late makes the liability cheaper required their are no interest or other costs.
Answer:
to identify accounts by performing additional analysis so that the competitive position of sales organization can be increased and heavy selling efforts can be invested in these accounts.
Explanation:
When a firm's competitive position is weak, but account opportunity is high, the selling effort strategy should be to identify accounts by performing additional analysis so that the competitive position of sales organization can be increased and heavy selling efforts can be invested in these accounts.
