Answer:
The answer is E. $15 million
Explanation:
We have the bank's net liquidity position is equal to its Cash inflow - Cash outflow.
Cash inflow = incoming deposits + revenues from the sale of nondeposit services + customer loan repayments + sale of bank assets + money market borrowings= 30 million + 15 million + 25 million + 5million + 45 million = $120 million
Cash outflow = deposit withdrawals + acceptable loan requests + repayments of bank borrowings + cash outflows to cover other operating expenses + dividend payments to its stockholders = 20 million + 60 million + 10 million + 5 million + 10 million = $105 million
So, net liquidity position is: 120 million - 105 million = $15 million.
So, the answer is E. $15 million.
Factory overhead variances should be broken out into their individual components and reported separately as either debits or credits to their individual variance accounts should factory overhead variances be treated in a journal entry to apply factory overhead
Credit is generally defined as an agreement between a lender and a borrower. Credit also refers to the creditworthiness or credit history of an individual or entity. In accounting, loans can reduce assets or increase liabilities, and can reduce expenses or increase income.
One credit is equivalent to a 30-second voice message. A voice message can be recorded for up to 120 seconds. The longer the voice message, the more credit you will get for shipping per phone number. 1-30 seconds = 1 credit per phone number.
An example of credit is a celebration for graduating from medical school while working two jobs. Examples of loans are amounts that are available in a bank account or credited to a checking account. An example of credits is the number of English courses required for a degree.
Learn more about credits here
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Answer:
6.34
%
Explanation:
For computing the coupon rate, first we have to determine the PMT by using the PMT formula that is shown on the attachment
Given that,
Present value = $939.02
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 7.15% ÷ 2 = 3.58%
NPER = 11 years × 2 = 22 years
The formula is shown below:
= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, the PMT is $31.70
It is semi annually
Now the annual PMT is
= $31.70 × 2
= $63.40
So, the coupon rate equals to
= $63.40 ÷ $1,000
= 6.34
%