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dlinn [17]
3 years ago
9

In August 2016, Richard purchased and placed in service an office building costing $753,000, including $134,000 for the land. Th

e amount of depreciation Richard may claim in 2016 is
I have been trying to figure out the answer but have not been successful. I have looked at different depreciation charts and tempted to figure it out per year. Could you please assist? I will be forever grateful. If possible can you tell me how figure out the answer?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Sonbull [250]3 years ago
5 0
There is no depreciation schedule provided along with your question.

Assuming that the question makes us of the <span>Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS), which provides that </span>the useful life for non-residential real property is 39 years. Depreciation is straight line using the mid-month convention.

The mid-month convention means that the month of acquisition is calculated as half month irrespective of the date of acquisition.

Given that <span>Richard purchased and placed in service an office building costing $753,000, including $134,000 for the land in August 2016, the depreciable part is only the building, hence the depreciable cost is given by:

$753,000 - $134,000 = $619,000
</span>
<span><span>The depreciation charge for each year of the estimated life of the building is given by:

$619,000 / 39 = $15,871.79

</span>The depreciable period in 2016 is 4.5 months (i.e. September, October, November and December with August treated as half month).

</span>Therefore, the <span>amount of depreciation Richard may claim in 2016 is</span> given by:

(4.5 / 12) x $15,871.79 = $5,951.92.
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Both Jeff and Lori are wrong.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 -  \frac{(4 \times 3)^{2} }{2}  + (1 \times 6)

3 - \frac{12^{2}}{2}  + 6

3 -  \frac{144}{2}  + 6

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8 0
3 years ago
The whole sale cost of bicycle is $75. There is a mark up of 55%. What is the new sale price of the bike
blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

$116.25

Step-by-step explanation:

10% = $7.50

5% = $3.75

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Hope this helps !

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2 years ago
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2 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!! WILL GIVE BARAINLYIST!!!!
Klio2033 [76]

Experimental probability = 1/5

Theoretical probability = 1/4

note: 1/5 = 0.2 and 1/4 = 0.25

=============================================

How I got those values:

We have 12 hearts out of 60 cards total in our simulation or experiment. So 12/60 = (12*1)/(12*5) = 1/5 is the experimental probability. In the simulation, 1 in 5 cards were a heart.

Theoretically it should be 1 in 4, or 1/4, since we have 13 hearts out of 52 total leading to 13/52 = (13*1)/(13*4) = 1/4. This makes sense because there are four suits and each suit is equally likely.

The experimental probability and theoretical probability values are not likely to line up perfectly. However they should be fairly close assuming that you're working with a fair standard deck. The more simulations you perform, the closer the experimental probability is likely to approach the theoretical one.

For example, let's say you flip a coin 20 times and get 8 heads. We see that 8/20 = 0.40 is close to 0.50 which is the theoretical probability of getting heads. If you flip that same coin 100 times and get 46 heads, then 46/100 = 0.46 is the experimental probability which is close to 0.50, and that probability is likely to get closer if you flipped it say 1000 times or 10000 times.

In short, the experimental probability is what you observe when you do the experiment (or simulation). So it's actually pulling the cards out and writing down your results. Contrast with a theoretical probability is where you guess beforehand what the result might be based on assumptions. One such assumption being each card is equally likely.

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2 years ago
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