Answer:
No
Step-by-step explanation: They are not because different banks have different interest rates on accounts, different fees and more
Dividing by coefficient other than +1
Answer:
138 apples
Step-by-step explanation:
7x12=84
9x6=54
84+54=138
Inverse variation equations take the following form:
y = a/x, where a is some constant
We know x=3, y=16 and x=6, y=8 satisfy the equation.
Let's find the value of a.
16=a/3
Multiply both sides by 3
16*3 = a
48 = a
Thus, the equation is:
y = 48/x
You can use the other values of x and y to test, but I'm sure this is the correct equation. :)
(This answer was sent on mobile, so please pardon any spelling errors I may have)
For a single payment with compound interest, the equation to use is F=P(1+i)^n where F is the value after n periods, P is the present value, and i is the interest rate.
If we want the final value F to double in 5 years, F is then equal to P then n=5. The equation is now:
2P=P(1+i)^5
2=(1+i)^5
i=14.87% per year