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nevsk [136]
3 years ago
15

Duncan Company reports the following financial information before adjustments. Dr. Cr. Accounts Receivable $100,000 Allowance fo

r Doubtful Accounts $2,000 Sales Revenue (all on credit) 900,000 Sales Returns and Allowances 50,000 Prepare the journal entry to record bad debt expense assuming Duncan Company estimates bad debts at (a) 5% of accounts receivable and (b) 5% of accounts receivable but Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a $1,500 debit balance. (If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts. Credit account titles are automatically indented when the amount is entered. Do not indent manually.)
Business
1 answer:
Angelina_Jolie [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

  • Duncan Company estimates bad debts at   (a) 5% of accounts receivable

Dr Bad Debt Expense                             $ 3.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3.000

  • (b) 5% of accounts receivable but Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a $1,500 debit balance.  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                            $ 6.500

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6.500

Explanation:

 

Initial Balance  

Sales Revenue (all on credit)         $ 900,000

Less: Sales Returns and Allowances $ 50,000

Estimates bad debts 5%

Dr Accounts Receivable                       $ 100,000

Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $ 2,000

When the company estimates the bad debts, the journal entry is the loss to the income statement through the account Bad Debt Expense and the record in the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts as a credit to deduct from Accounts Receivable in the Balance Sheet.

The entry it's less than the estimated value of 5% because the account "Allowance for Doubtful Accounts" had a balance of $2,000 on Credit.

Duncan Company estimates bad debts at   (a) 5% of accounts receivable  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                            $ 3,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3,000

The new balance on Allowance for Doubtful Accounts as Debit of $1,500 means that when the entry of the adjustment is recorded it's necessary to compensate that value to show a  debit balance of $5,000., because the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts must reflect a credit balance.

(b) 5% of accounts receivable but Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a $1,500 debit balance.  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                            $ 6,500

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6,500

Accounts Uncollectible are those credit that the company give and there are not chances of been collected.

When the customers buy products on credits but then the company can't collect the debt, then it's necessary to write off the unpaid bill as uncollectible.

One way it's to write-off directly the bad debts at the moment decided that the credit are uncollectible, the total amount it's reported as bad debt expenses which affect negativly the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced in the same amount, less assets.

The other way it's to determine a percentage of total amount of accounts receivables as uncollectible, exist many ways to analize the accounts receivable and figure the value of uncollectible.

When the company have the percentage of uncollectible accounts the journal entry required is Bad Expenses (debit) with Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit)

At the moment of the write-off as the expenses were before recognized we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit) with Accounts Receivable (Credit), with this we are recognizing the uncollectible credit of the company.

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Olenka [21]

The answer is<u> "depreciation allowances and tax credits."</u>


Depreciation allowance refers to a sum that can be removed a business' benefit figure while ascertaining charge, to take into account the way that an advantage has lost piece of its incentive amid a specific time frame.  

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5 0
3 years ago
Morgan Sondgeroth Inc. began operations in January 2018 and reported the following results for each of its 3 years of operations
stepan [7]

Answer:

Part A) Book Value = $1,080,000

Part B) Book Value = $1,050,000

Explanation:

Part 1: To compute the book value of the common stock at December 31, 2020

To do this, we consider both the preferred and common stock values as follows:

Stockholder's equity:

<u>Preferred Stock = $500,000</u>

<u>Common stock = $750,000</u>

Retained earnings: To calculate retained earnings we need to deduct dividends in arrears to prefered stock holders and then ascribe the remaining value to retained earnings.

Dividend in Arrears= 3 years @ 8% interest per year

= 500,000 x 0.08 x 3= $120,000

<u>Remaining earnings for available to common share holders </u>

= Retained earnings balance- dividend paid to prferred stock holders.

=$800,000 (net income for 2020)- $40,000 (net loss for 2019) - $260,000 (net loss for 2018)

= $800,000-$40,000-$260,000

= $500,000 - Dividend in arrears

= $500,000- $120,000

= $380,000

<u>Book Value of Stockholders' equity</u>

Common Stock equity + Balance of retained earnings

= $700,000 + $380,000

= $1,080,000

The book value per share = $1,080,000/ outstanding shares

= $1,080,000/750,000= $1.44

Part 2: To compute the book value of the common stock at December 31, 2020 Preference stock has liquidating value of $106 per share

Stockholder's equity:

<u>Preferred Stock = $500,000</u>

Preferred stock liquidating premium = (106-100) x 5000

= $6 x 5000= $30,000

<u>Common stock = $750,000</u>

Retained earnings: To calculate retained earnings we need to deduct dividends in arrears to prefered stock holders and then ascribe the remaining value to retained earnings.

Dividend in Arrears= 3 years @ 8% interest per year

= 500,000 x 0.08 x 3= $120,000

<u>Remaining earnings for available to common share holders </u>

= Retained earnings balance- net losses from previous years - dividend paid to prferred stock holders - liquadating premium to preferred stock

=$800,000 (net income for 2020)- $40,000 (net loss for 2019) - $260,000 (net loss for 2018)

= $800,000-$40,000-$260,000

= $500,000 - Dividend in arrears - liquidating

= $500,000- $120,000- $30,000

= $350,000

<u>Book Value of Stockholders' equity</u>

Common Stock equity + Balance of retained earnings

= $700,000 + $350,000

= $1,050,000

The book value per share = $1,080,000/ outstanding shares

= $1,050,000/750,000= $1.4

6 0
3 years ago
If two individuals are licensed in the same line with two different companies join together to sell a policy, the commission can
NISA [10]
<h3><u>Answer:</u></h3>

The commission can be shared between the two agents.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

Many times different companies collaborate with each other to sell a particular policy to maximize their profits. When there are two agents licensed in the same line and when the two companies collaborate to sell a policy then the commission is shared  between the agents.

This is because they will work together for the profits and that when the two companies collaborate they become one to sell the policy. The agents work together and the commission is given to them as a whole. This is a common practice when two companies work together.

4 0
3 years ago
Harry owes the bank money. To repay his debt, he paid \$150$150dollar sign, 150 back to the bank each month. After 101010 months
Firdavs [7]

Answer: $8,400

Explanation:

Given the following:

Amount repaid each month = $150

Number of Periods for which amount was paid = 10 months

Amount left after 10 months payment = $6900

Harry's original debt=?

The total amount paid = $150 × 10 = $1500

Amount left = $6900

Total debt amount:

(Total Amount left + total amount paid )

$(6900 + 1500)

=$8400

7 0
3 years ago
The Seattle Corporation has been presented with an investment opportunity which will yield cash flows of $30,000 per year in Yea
Sergio [31]

Answer:

payback period = 4.86 years

Explanation:

given data

cash flows year 1 = $30,000 per year

cash flows year 5 = $35,000 per year

cash flows year 10 = $40,000 per year

investment cost = $150,000

to find out

payback period for this investment

solution

we get here accumulated inflows will be

accumulated inflows year 4 =  $30,000 × 4

accumulated inflows year 4 = $120,000

and

accumulated inflows year 5 = $120,000 + $35,000 = $155,000

and Initial investment = $150,000

so payback period will be

payback period = 4 years + (150,000 - 120,000)  ÷ 35,000 × 365 days

payback period = 4 years and 313 days

payback period = 4.86 years

3 0
3 years ago
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