Answer:
B) Investing Activities
Explanation:
Investing activities deal with cash transactions involving movement of items of Property, Plant and Equipment. These transactions include purchase costs and sale proceeds of assets.
Answer: Please refer to Explanation.
Explanation:
Monopoly.
The 2 reasons why the monopoly’s marginal revenue will always be less than its price are;
a) Even though Monopolies have very large influence on the prices of goods and services they offer, for a Monopoly to sell more goods, they generally have to lower their prices. This will lead to a situation where Marginal Revenue, which is the additional revenue made per additional unit sold will be less than Price because additional revenue for a new unit will be less than the last one because prices are dropped .
b) A Monopoly's demand schedule is downward sloping. This means that demand rises as prices drop. As prices drop therefore, more goods will be sold but the marginal revenue will be less because prices had to be dropped to get an additional unit to be sold. That unit therefore will bring in less revenue than the last unit.
Perfectly Competitive Market
In such a market, the seller is a Price Taker. This means that sellers in this market do not sell at a price that they want but rather at a price the market has established to be the Equilibrium. This is because of the high competition in the market. Since they are all selling at the same price, this means that every additional revenue they get is the same as the price the market charges. This means that Price equals Marginal Revenue in this market.
Answer:
$2.8 divdends per share
Explanation:
$56 market price
Rate of return 10%
The gain for an investment in stocks is:
In this case we are told that this is distribute evenly, this means:
dividends paid = market price gain
So dividends yield 5% and market price yields another 5% to achieve the 10%
So currently $56 market price x 0.05% = $2.8 divdends per share
Answer:
I believe the best answer would be A. $10,580
Explanation:
400 x 23.89 = $9,556. 400 x 50.34 = $20,136
$20,136 - $9,556 = $10,580
Answer:
E. $78
Explanation:
The computation of the net present value is shown below:
Net present value is
= Initial investment + year cash inflows ÷ (1 + discount rate)^number of years + year cash inflows ÷ (1 + discount rate)^number of years
= -$150 + $175 ÷ 1.15 + $100 ÷ 1.15^2
= $77.78
= $78
Hence, the correct option is E. $78
