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snow_tiger [21]

2 years ago

7

According to Okun's law, when cyclical unemployment increases by one percentage point, the recessionary gap by per

cent of potential output.

1 answer:

yanalaym [24]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The answer is "widens and two"

Explanation:

Okun 's law relates to the relationship between some of the unemployment rate and the United States economy and also its gross national product. This also tells that GNP increases by 3% unless joblessness starts dropping by 1%.

The maths formula of this law can be defined as follows:

$2(\text{unemployment rate - natural unemployment}) =$ $\frac{\text{potential GDP-actual GDP}}{\text{potential GDP}} \times 100$

The above formula proves that Whenever a 1% point of cyclical increasing unemployment, its derivative instrument tends to increase by 2%

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Likely B. Liquidity is basically the measurement of how quickly a given investment can be turned into cash. If you can sell it or take money from it quickly, it is liquid. Any one of the others (A, C or D) can be withdrawn from in a short time, and thus are very liquid. CDs, however, are set to a specified amount of time. You deposit money for, say, 5 years and then are allowed to withdraw it, not before. Thus, it is not liquid.

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Customer: An entity that describes a customer. An instance occurs for unique customers only using name, date of birth, and login

Tasya [4]

Answer:

1. The relationship between customer and Online - One to one

2. The relationship between customer and Satisfaction - One to many

3. The relationship between online and visits - Many to many

4. The relationship between Visits and satisfaction - Prototype

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2 years ago

Using the data set below, what would be the forecast for period 5 using the exponential smoothing method? Assume the forecast fo

elena55 [62]

Answer:

The answer is C: 14300

Note: The actual answer is 14296, <em>and </em>the closest to that was option C.

Explanation:

Formula to calculate forecast using Exponential smoothing:

$F_{t} = F_{t-1} + \alpha ( A_{t-1} - F_{t-1} )$

Where,

$F_{t}$ = New Forecast
$F_{t-1}$ = Previous period's forecast.
$\alpha$ = Smoothing Constant
$A_{t-1}$ = Previous period's Actual Demand.

Calculating the forecast for period 5:

Data:

$F_{5} = ?$
$F_{t-1} = 14000$
$\alpha = 0.4$
$A_{t-1} = 14750$

Putting <em>values in the formula:</em>

$F_{5} =$ $14000 + 0.4(14750-14000)$

$F_{5} = 14000 + 0.4 (740)$

$F_{5} = 14000 + 296$

$F_{5} = 14296$

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3 years ago

Aerotron Electronics is considering the purchase of a water filtration system to assist in circuit board manufacturing. The syst

tino4ka555 [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

Annual worth: this will be the annuity payment equivalent to all the cashflow of the investment. Thus the PMT of the net present value

Cash Investment at F0: <em>230,000/2 = 115,000</em>

present value of 7,500 salvage value:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 7,500.00

time 7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

$\frac{7500}{(1 + 0.1)^{7} } = PV$

PV <em> 3,848.69 </em>

<u>Then, we need to calculate the present value of the loan discounted at 10%</u>

half the investment is finance: 230,000 / 2 = <em>115,000</em>

Then, this capitalize 2 year at 8% before the first payment:

$Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount$

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time 2 year

MARR: 10% = 0.08000

$115000 \: (1+ 0.08)^{2} = Amount$

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Now we need to discount this loan at 10% which is our rate of return:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 134,136.00

time 2.00

MARR: 10% = 0.1

$\frac{134136}{(1 + 0.1)^{2} } = PV$

PV <em>110,856.20 </em>

Finally: we add this values to get the resent worth:

<em>115,000 + 110,856.20 - 3,848.69 = </em><em>222,007.51</em>

<em />

Last step, we calculate the PMT of the present worth:

$PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\$

PV 222,007.51

time 7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

$222007.51 \div \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-7} }{0.1} = C\\$

C $ 45,601.564

<em />

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